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Thursday, 21 March 2013

UGC NET ECONOMICS SOLVED PAPER III JUNE 2012

                                                         
                                           UGC NET ECONOMICS PAPER III JUNE 2012

                                                                  ECONOMICS
                                                                    PAPER – III



1. A solution of Walrasian general equilibrium will exist if and only if,
(A) Condition of fixed point theorem is satisfied.
(B) Pareto’s condition of optimality is satisfied.
(C) Hick’s stability conditions are satisfied.
(D) The condition of Pareto’s law of income distribution is satisfied.

2. Select the correct statement of Adding up Theorem.
(A) If income generated by the given output produced during
      the given period is distributed according to average productivity
      of all factors, total income will be exhausted.
(B) Total income derived from the output will be exhausted if all
      factors are paid according to their marginal productivity.

(C) Total income derived from the output will be exhausted if all
      factors are paid at the same rate.
(D) Total income will be exhausted if all factor rewards are
      proportional to commodity prices.

3. The producer will substitute capital for labour till he reaches that point
    of isoquant at which,
(A) The price of the good he produces equals wage rate.
(B) Marginal rate of technical substitution equals interest rate.
(C) Marginal rate of technical substitution equals marginal revenue.
(D) Marginal rate of technical substitution equals the ratio of marginal productivity of
      labour and capital.


4. Match the items from the List – I with items in List – II :
                List – I                                                                          List – II
I. Sales maximization as the objective of the firm                           1. Morris
II. Growth maximization as objective of the firm                           2. Baumol
III. Managerial Utility Function Maximization
      as objective of the firm                                                          3. Williamson
IV. Sales, profit & growth maximization as
    objective of the firm                                                                4. Kaldor
Select the correct answer from the  following codes :
Codes :
       I II III IV
(A) 2 1 3 None
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 4 3 2 1

5. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II :
                  List – I                                                     List – II
I. Cardinal Utility Theory of Demand                          1. Hicks
II. Revealed Preference Theory of Demand                2. A. Marshall
III. Indifference Preference Theory of Demand           3. Neuman & Morgenstern
IV. Utility Index under uncertainty                               4. Samuelson
Select the correct answer from the following codes :
     Codes :
     I II III IV
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 1 3 2

6. Arrange the proponents of the marginal productivity theory of
    factor reward in chronological order :
1. J.B. Clark
2. Marshall
3. Walras
4. Jevons
Select the correct code for correct answer :
Codes :
(A) 1, 4, 2, 3
(B) 4, 3, 1, 2
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2
(D) 2, 1, 4, 3

7. Assertion (A) : Non-collusive model of Chamberlin asserts that a stable equilibrium can be
                           reached if each firm charges Monopoly price and equally shares the market
                          demand for their products.
   Reason (R) : Reasoning is that the firms recognize mutual interdependence in terms of
                       action and reaction with regard to price decision with the objective of profit
                       maximization which will be realized if prices are determined at a level which
                      equals marginal cost.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(C) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.

8. The revealed preference approach to the derivation of indifference curve
(A) Assumes stability over time of an observed person’s tastes.
(B) Assumes that all people have identical tastes.
(C) Relies on repeated observations of the market behaviour of a single person.
(D) Is correctly described by both (A) and (C).

9. Which of the following statements does not hold true in case of the Keynesian Economics ?
(A) Velocity of money is an unstable function of its determinants.
(B) Labour is subject to money illusion.
(C) Aggregate supply function tends to become flat at levels of output well below full
      employment and to become steeper as full capacity is reached.
(D) Aggregate supply schedule is vertical, and output and employment are completely
      supply determined.


10. Tobin’s q-theory of investment indicates that firms add to their stock of capital when
(A) the replacement value of their real assets exceeds the market value of their financial assets.
(B) the market value of their financial assets exceeds the replacement value of their real assets.
(C) the market value of their real assets exceeds the book value of their financial assets.
(D) the market value of their financial assets exceeds the book value of their real assets.

11. When current income includes negative transitory component, relating consumption with current
       income will produce
(A) an average propensity to consume that is lower than the long run average propensity to consume.
(B) an average propensity to consume that is higher than the average long run propensity to consume.
(C) an average propensity to consume that equals the long run average propensity to consume.
(D) None of the above

12. Liquidity trap is a situation when
(A) all potential investors expect the rate of interest to rise in future
(B) all potential investors expect the rate of interest to fall in future
(C) natural rate of interest is above the critical rate of interest
(D) demand for money for speculative purpose is interestinelastic

13. In Harrod’s model of economic growth, if warranted rate is below the natural rate of growth then it is
      possible to maintain steady state growth at the warranted rate with
(A) continually increasing unemployment
(B) a constant rate of unemployment
(C) continually decreasing unemployment
(D) None of the above

14. Which of the following is not a feature of the A.W. Phillip’s inflationunemployment
      trade-off relation ?
(A) A non-linear inverse relationship between unemployment rate and the
     rate of exchange in wage rate.
(B) There is a loop in the anticlockwise around the Phillip’s curve.
(C) The wage-inflation unemployment relationship is predictable.
(D) Philip’s curve shifts when expected rate of inflation shifts

15. Suppose there is full employment and vertical aggregate supply
      schedule. An increase in the nominal money supply
(A) reduces the rate of interest and changes the composition of output
(B) causes a proportional increase in real output
(C) has no effect on the real money supply or the composition of output
(D) causes the real money supply to increase, which changes composition of output

16. In the context of the Mundell- Fleming model of open economy,
      consider the following variables that shift the IS function.
1. a rise in the exchange rate
2. an increase in foreign income
3. a cut in taxes
4. a fall in exchange rate
Which of the following combinations of these factors shift the IS function upwards
 towards the
  right ?
(A) 1, 2, 4                                            (B) 2, 3, 4
(C) 1, 2, 3                                            (D) 3, 4, 1

17. Since March 2010, how many times the Reserve Bank of India has
      increased the repo rate ?
(A) Eleven times
(B) Thirteen times
(C) Ten times
(D) Twelve times

18. Which of the following Committees has been set up in India for identification of BPL families in
      urban areas ?
(A) Tendulkar Committee
(B) Saxena Committee
(C) Lakdawala Committee
(D) Hashim Committee

19. A major financial inclusion initiative named ‘Swabhiman’ was formally launched on
(A) February 2010
(B) February 2011
(C) February 2009
(D) February 2008

20. Which of the Five Year Plans has laid emphasis on ‘faster, sustainable and inclusive growth’ ?
(A) Eleventh Five Year Plan
(B) Twelfth Five Year Plan
(C) Tenth Five Year Plan
(D) Ninth Five Year Plan

21. Under the revised Index of Industrial Production (IIP) series, with 2004-05
     as the base, the total number of items covered has increased from 538 to
(A) 682                                          (B) 662
(C) 652                                         (D) 642

22. Which one of the following States had the highest per capita income in 2009-10 ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Delhi

23. Which one of the following States had the highest number of branches
      of Regional Rural Branches (RRBs) in 2010 ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Punjab

24. Growth of Indian agriculture has been slowed down since the adoption of new economic policy
      due to
1. low increase in crop yield
2. low or no public investment
3. stagnant green revolution technology
4. low retail market prices of agricultural produce
Answer this question by selecting the correct combination of codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3
(C) 1, 2, 3
(D) 1, 4

25. According to the monetarists, money supply constitutes
(A) Currency + demand deposits
(B) Currency + demand deposits + time deposits
(C) Currency + demand deposits + time deposits + equity shares
(D) Currency + all kinds of bank deposits + deposits with other institutions + borrowing

26. Which of the following is not a specialized sub market of the money market ?
(A) Collateral loan market
(B) Discount market
(C) Bond market
(D) Acceptance market

27. Arrange the following Committees in chronological order from the given codes
I. Khusro Committee
II. Dantwala Committee
III. Narasimham Committee
IV. Kelkar Committee
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, IV, I, III
(C) II, I, IV, III
(D) II, III, I, IV

28. Assertion (A) : The working of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) revealed that they eroded their
                             capital base.
     Reason (R) : Many RRBs are nonviable and having high operating costs.
                        Of the above two statements, give the correct answer from the given codes :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

29. Which of the following institutions are regulated by the RBI as All India Financial Institution ?
I. Export Import Bank of India
II. National Housing Bank
III. State Bank of India
IV. Small Industries Development Bank of India
Select the correct answer from the given code :
Codes :
(A) I, II and IV
(B) II, III, IV
(C) I & II
(D) III & IV

 30. Core inflation is a measure of inflation
(A) that is based only on food and energy prices
(B) that includes items that face volatile price movements, notably food and energy
(C) that excludes items that face volatile price movements, notably food and energy
(D) None of the above

31. First Green Revolution was primarily concerned with the production and productivity of
(A) Pulses
(B) Oilseeds
(C) Wheat
(D) Fruits & vegetables

32. During the period from 2004-05 to 2010-11, agricultural sector GDP
(A) witnessed a higher growth rate than the overall GDP
(B) witnessed a lower growth rate than the overall GDP
(C) witnessed a stagnant growth rate as compared to the overall growth rate
(D) witnessed a similar growth rate as that of the overall GDP.

33. The main objectives of food management are
(A) Procurement of food grains from farmers at remunerative prices
(B) Distribution of food grains to consumers at affordable prices.
(C) Maintenance of food buffers for food security and pricestability
(D) All of the above

34. Which one of the following States contributed maximum to the production of pulses in the year
      2009-10 ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Punjab

35. A Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme was introduced in the year
(A) 2001    (B) 2005   (C) 1998    (D) 1999

36. Increase in agricultural production  and productivity is a pre-condition
(A) to raise the share of agriculture in GDP
(B) to ensure national food security
(C) to provide livelihood and nutritional security
(D) All of the above

37. Select the year in which the gross fiscal deficit, revenue deficit and primary deficit of the Central
     Government as percent of GDP were the highest ?
(A) 2008-09    (B) 2006-07   (C) 2007-08    (D) 2005-06

38. Which item is likely to be the most significant item of expenditure of the
      Central Government during 2011-12 ?
(A) Subsidies
(B) Defence
(C) Interest
(D) Share of States in Central taxes

39. Items of social sector expenditure of the State Governments include
I. Education and sports
II. Energy and transport
III. Medical and public health
IV. Water supply and sanitation
Find correct answer from given codes :
Codes :
(A) I, II and III are correct.
(B) I, III and IV are correct.
(C) II, III and IV are correct.
(D) I and III are correct
.
 40. Match the items of List – I with items of List – II from the given code :
             List – I                                                   List – II
I. Law of increasing State activities             1. R.N. Bhargava
II. Displacement effect                               2. Adolph Wagner
III. Federal Finance                                   3. Weisman and Peacock
IV. Functional Finance                               4. A.P. Lerner
Codes :
         I   II  III  IV
(A)   1   2   3   4
(B)   2   3   1   4
(C)   3   4   2   1
(D)   4   1   3   2

41. Assertion (A) : The Union Budget for 2010-11 had begun the process of fiscal consolidation
           with a partial withdrawal of the stimulus measures.
      Reason (R) : There was a clear evidence of economic recovery in the economy.
 In the context of the above two statements, which one is correct from the given codes ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correctb and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.

42. Arrange the following Reports in chronological order from the given codes :
I. Committee on Taxation of Agricultural wealth and income
II. Report of the task force on direct taxes.
III. Thirteenth Finance Commission : 2010-15
IV. Indian Tax Reforms – Report of a survey
Codes :
(A) III, II, IV, I
(B) IV, I, II, III
(C) II, III, I, IV
(D) I, IV, III, II

43. In a competitive market, a tax on wage income falls wholly on labour if :
(A) Labour supply is inelastic
(B) Labour supply is elastic
(C) Labour supply is highly elastic
(D) Demand for products has infinite elasticity

44. The apex financial institution responsible for the development of small and micro industries in India is
(A) IDBI
(B) SIDBI
(C) NABARD
(D) None of the above

45. The general methods used to solve industrial disputes in India are
1. Collective bargaining
2. Compulsory arbitration
3. Adjudication
4. Decision by trade unions
Choose the correct combination of methods from this following :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

46. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R) :
      Assertion (A) : Information Technology (IT) industry is a ‘high knowledge” based
                             industry that has developed rapidly, mainly on its own merits in India.
      Reason (R) : Industry that is based on high knowledge does not need any significant support
                          from the Government nor there is much scope for outside interference.
Choose the correct combination of codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

47. Match ‘SEBI’ with the appropriate item among the following :
(A) Regulation of Money market
(B) Regulation of Capital market
(C) Regulation of Commodity market
(D) All the above

48. Given below are the various combinations giving the steps of industrial development. Select the
      correct sequential combination of steps.
(A) Monetary expansion; industrial development; fall of interest; investment is stimulated.
(B) Industrial development; fall of interest; monetary expansion; investment is stimulated.
(C) Monetary expansion; fall of interest; investment is stimulated; industrial development.
(D) Industrial development; fall of interest; monetary expansion; investment is stimulated.

49. Under the post 1991 economic policies, the Government of India supports
(A) Private manufacturing sector
(B) Export industries
(C) Small industries
(D) All the above

50. Which of the following is the condition(s) of economic viability and technological feasibility of
      Leontief’s static model ?
(A) Perron – Frobinius root
(B) Value of the objective function of the primal should equal the value of the objective function
      of the dual of the primal.
(C) Kuhn–Tucker conditions
(D) Hawkins–Simon conditions

51. Given the following production function, match the items in list I and II :
      Y = A Lb Ka a, b > 0
          List – I                                             List – II
I. Decreasing returns to scale                   1. a + b > 1
II. Increasing returns of scale                   2. a
III. Output elasticity with respect to L      3. a + b < 1
IV. Output elasticity with respect to K     4. b
Codes :
         I   II  III  IV
(A)   3   1   2   4
(B)   1   2   4   3
(C)   4   1   3   2
(D)   2   3   4   1

52. Match the following :
         List – I                                        List – II
I. Box-Jenkins Method                      1. Causality
II. Unit-root test                                2. Forecasting
III. Durbin- Watson ‘d’ statistic         3. Stationarity
IV. Granger test                                4. Auto correlation
Codes :
         I   II  III  IV
(A)   3   1   2   4
(B)   2   3   4   1
(C)   1   2   3   4
(D)   4   1   2   3

53. Which of the following hypotheses are tested by a regression function ?
(A) Inter-relation between two or more variables is significantly different from Zero.
(B) The degree and direction of inter relations between two or more variables are non-zero
      and goodness of fit of the regression function is satisfactory.
(C) Degree of influence exercised by systematic explanatory factors is greater/lesser/equal
      to the influence exercised by random factors.
(D) All the above

54. In the presence of Heteroscedasticity, which of the following is not a correct statement ?
(A) Heteroscedasticity does not alter the unbiasedness and consistency properties of OLS
      estimators.
(B) OLS estimators are of minimum variance or efficient
(C) BLUE estimators are provided by the method of weighted least squares.
(D) ‘t’ and ‘F’ tests based on standard assumptions of classical linear regression
      model may not be reliable.

55. Correlation coefficient between X and Y is 0.3 and correlation coefficient between P and Q is 0.6,
      then the strength of correlation between P and Q is higher than between X and Y by
(A) two times
(B) three times
(C) four times
(D) five times

56. Which of the following are conditions of consumer’s equilibrium in a two commodity case
      where U = utility and P1 and P2 are prices of two goods ?
(A) dU/dX = 0
(B) dU1/dU2 = 0
(C) d2U/dX2 < 0
(D) None of the above

57. The production function Q = A [bK–a + a L–a]–1/a is homogeneous of degree
(A) zero    (B) one   (C) Infinity    (D) a

58. Given the total cost function C = 7Q2 + 26Q + 5, MC at Q = ` 5 is
(A) ` 100     (B) ` 200    (C) ` 85       (D) ` 96

59. Match the following :
              List – I                                                 List – II
I. Acceptance of H0 when it is false            1. Simple random sampling
II. Mean is equal to degrees of freedom      2. Type II error
III. Population is homogeneous                   3. Positively skewed distribution
IV. Mean > Mode                                      4. c2 Distribution
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 1 2 3

60. For the regression model given below
     Y = b0 + b1X + U
     Y = 20 + 2X
     SE : 0.46
     To test H0 : b1 = 2.1 against H1 : b1  2.1 (not equal to 2.1), test statistic | t | is equal to
(A) 4.609    (B) 0.217   (C) 4.34    (D) 0.33

61. For the regression model
      Y = b0 + b1X1 + b2X2 + …. + bkXk + e
     The degrees of freedom of test statistic | t |, with n observations is
(A) n – k
(B) n – k + 1
(C) n – k – 1
(D) n + k – 1

62. The act of simultaneously buying a currency in one market and selling in another market is called
(A) Speculation
(B) Spotting
(C) Forwarding
(D) Arbitrage

63. All internationally traded services are covered under which of the following WTO agreements ?
(A) GATS    (B) TRIPS   (C) TRIMS    (D) PTA

64. The Bretton – Woods system
(A) set up a code of rules for nations to follow their conduct of international trade
(B) set up borrowing facilities for nation’s temporary balance of payments problems
(C) Evolved over the years in several important ways
(D) All of the above

65. Full employment and balance of payments equilibrium will be automatically achieved in an
      optimum currency area
(A) if exchange rates are flexible
(B) foreign capital flows into the country
(C) if labour and capital move freely
(D) if trade is liberalized

66. Examples of economic integration
I. Free trade area
II. Customs union
III. Common market
IV. Cartel
(A) I and II are correct
(B) II and III are correct
(C) I, II and IV are correct
(D) I, II and III are correct

67. Arrange the order of WTO ministerial
      I. Seattle                            II. Cancun
    III. Singapore                      IV. Doha
(A) II, I, III, IV          (B) III, II, I, IV        (C) III, I, IV, II              (D) II, III, I, IV

68. Maximum rate of tariff India can levy on edible oil under WTO Agreement on Agriculture is
(A) 100%    (B) 150%   (C) 200%    (D) 300%

69. WTO Agreement on Agriculture consists of
I. Domestic support
II. Export subsidies
III. Market access
IV. Input subsidies
(A) I and IV are correct.
(B) II and IV are correct.
(C) I, II and III are correct.
(D) I, II and IV are correct.

70. In Harrod’s growth model, neutral technical progress implies technical progress as
(A) Capital augmenting
(B) Labour augmenting
(C) Both labour and capital augmenting
(D) Productivity increasing

71. Which are the two gaps affecting growth process of an economic system in the two gap model of
      growth ?
(A) Saving gap and investment gap
(B) Income gap and consumption gap
(C) Foreign exchange gap and domestic saving gap
(D) Export gap and import gap

72. Assertion (A) : The new endogeneous growth theory examines production function
                              that shows increasing returns.
      Reason (R) : Because of specialization and investment in knowledge capital.
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

73. The ‘Golden Age’ model was developed by
(A) Nicholas Kaldor
(B) Joan Robinson
(C) J.R. Hicks
(D) R.F. Harrod

74. Terms of Trade of the developing countries are unfavourable due to the fact that whenever income in
      developed countries increases the demand for primary goods reduces because
(A) Income elasticity of demand for primary goods is high.
(B) Income elasticity of demand for primary goods is low.
(C) Income elasticity of demand is neutral towards primary goods.
(D) None of the above

75. T.W. Schultz has given the following ratios in relation to education for economic growth :
(A) Education capital and labour ratio
(B) Education labour ratio
(C) Education-income ratio
(D) Education labour ratio, education income ratio and education investment ratio





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