UGC NET HISTORY SOLVED PAPER II

                                                                      HISTORY
                                                                       Paper – II

1. Which one of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Lower Palaeolithic : Hunting, gathering
(B) Upper Palaeolithic : Hunting, gathering
(C) Mesolithic : Hunting, gathering
(D) Neolithic : Food Production

2. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
             List – I                                         List – II
      (a) Sarai Khola                               (i) Haryana
      (b) Tarkhanwaladera                      (ii) Pakistan
      (c) Kunal                                       (iii) Rajasthan
      (d) Shikarpur                                 (iv) Gujarat
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

3. Which one of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Rock shelter : Langhnaj
(B) Microlith : Mahadaha
(C) Site associated with butchering : Lekhakia
(D) Stone tool workshop : Isampur

4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
           List – I                                              List – II
(a) Rigveda                                             (i) Vajsaneye
(b) Yajurveda                                         (ii) Shakala
(c) Samaveda                                        (iii) Shaunaka
(d) Atharvaveda                                    (iv) Kauthum
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
                 List – I                                          List – II
(a) Digha Nikaya                                    (i) Dhammapada
(b) Khuddaka Nikaya                            (ii) Mahaparinibbana sutta
(c) Vinayapitaka                                    (iii) Kathavastu
(d) Abhidhammapitaka                          (iv) Khandhaka
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

6. ‘Indica’ of Megasthenes was preserved in later Greek accounts. Which one of the
    following Greek  travellers’ account is not associated with ‘Indica’ ?
(A) Ktesius
(B) Strabo
(C) Arrian
(D) Pliny

7. Which one of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Rock Edict : Sarnath
(B) Minor Rock Edict : Bahapur
(C) Pillar Edict : Rampurva
(D) Minor Pillar Edict : Sanchi

8. Which one of the following administrative structure in ascending order is correct ?
(A) Dronamukha, Sthaniya, Samgrahana, Karvatika
(B) Sthaniya, Karvatika, Dronamukha, Samgrahana
(C) Sthaniya, Dronamukha, Karvatika, Samgrahana
(D) Sthaniya, Dronamukha, Samgrahana, Karvatika

9. What is the correct chronological order of the following ?
(a) The Periplus of the Erythrean Sea
(b) Cosmos Indikopleustes
(c) Geography of Ptolemy
(d) Indica of Megasthenes
Choose the answer from the codes given below :
(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (a) (c) (d) (b)
(C) (d) (a) (c) (b)
(D) (c) (d) (a) (b)

10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
                  List – I                       List – II
(a) Agathocles                           (i) Buddha
(b) Kadphises I                         (ii) Samkarshana
(c) Vimakadphises                     (iii) Atash
(d) Kanishka I                           (iv) Shiva
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

11. Which one of the following evidence is not the correct evidence of Ramagupta in later period ?
(A) Manasollasa of Someshwara
(B) Shankararya’s commentary on Harshcharita
(C) Majmat-ul-Tawarikh of Abul Hasan Ali
(D) Sanjan Tamrapatra of Amoghvarsha

12. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
   Assertion (A) : The majority of peasants in the Post-Gupta Period were considered
                        to belong to Sudra Varna.
   Reason (R) : A large scaleincorporation of tribes into caste system started
                      taking place from the Post-Gupta Period.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is false
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is correct
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false

13. Which one of the following collection of hymns of Alvar poetry collected by Nathmuni ?
(A) Periyapuranam
(B) Tirumurai
(C) Nalayira Divya Prabandhan
(D) Tiruttondal Tiruvantati

14. Identify the dynasty to which Queen Rudramadevi belonged to
(A) Chalukyas of Badami
(B) Pandyas of Madurai
(C) Kakatiyas of Warrangal
(D) Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi

15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
           List – I                                       List – II
(a) Kirtivarman                                   (i) Vatapi
(b) Simhavishnu                                  (ii) Tanjaur
(c) Dantivarman                                 (iii) Kanchipuram
(d) Vijayalaya                                    (iv) Manyekheta
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

16. In which one of the following ancient literary works a separate section of painting is found ?
(A) Panchasiddhantika
(B) Vishnudharmottara Purana
(C) Panchatantra
(D) Natyashastra

17. Which one of the following was the revenue officer of the Chola dynasty ?
(A) Aulnayak
(B) Sherundaram
(C) Varitppottagakka
(D) Perumakkal

18. Which of the following statements are not correct ?
(i) After Balban’s death his son Bughra Khan assumed sovereignty in Lakhnauti
(ii) Alauddin Khalji extended his authority to Bengal
(iii) Ghiyasuddin Tughluq made Bengal part of the Delhi sultanate in 1324
(iv) Firuz Shah Tughluq invaded Bengal twice during the reign of Shamsuddin Iliyas
      Shah. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iii) (iv)

19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
                 List – I                                                   List – II
(a) Shaikh Moinuddin Chishti                                 (i) Delhi
(b) Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya                              (ii) Ajodhan
(c) Shaikh Farid-ud-din Masud Ganj-i- Shakar     (iii) Multan
(d) Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya (iv) Ajmer
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

20. Who termed the dominion of Sultan Muhammad Tughlaq as ‘Hind and Sind’ ?
(A) Ziyauddin Barani
(B) Abdal Malik Isami
(C) Ibn Battuta
(D) Yahia-bin Ahmad Sirhindi

21. What measures were adopted by Mahmud Gawan to curb the power of the Bahmani Nobles ?
(i) He reduced the size of their estate
(ii) He increased the amount of land classified as royal domain
(iii) He forbade governors from controlling more than a single fort
(iv) He enhanced the rate of land revenue demand.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv)

22. Arrange the following in correct chronological order :
(i) Chaitanya (ii) Eknath (iii) Surdas (iv) Tulsidas
Codes :
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

23. Given below are two statements, one labelled Assertion (A) and other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In military terms Firuz Shah Tughluq’s reign was undistinguished
Reason (R) : He could not subjugate the ruler of Nagarkot
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

24. Who described the Mughal imperial Harem as the ‘Pavilion of chartity’ ?
(A) Nizamuddin Ahmad
(B) Abul Fazl
(C) Gulbadan Begum
(D) Abdul Hamid Lahori

25. In the Mughal System of administration, Mir Bakshi was
(A) Commandar-in-chief of the Mughal army
(B) Incharge of the imperial mint
(C) Minister-in-charge of Treasury
(D) Paymaster General

26. Which of the following social reforms was not introduced by Akbar ?
(A) Legalization of widows remarriage
(B) Registration of marriage
(C) Total ban on the practice of sati
(D) The age of circumcision was raised to twelve

27. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) In Mughal India, cultivation of indigo was confined to the provinces of Delhi and Agra
(B) Madad-i-Maash grants were made hereditary by Aurangzeb
(C) Altamgha Jagirs were made transferable by Jahangir
(D) Kashmir was brought under the zabti system of land revenue assessment.

28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
                    List – I                                                    List – II
(a) Maasir-i- Jahangiri                                         (i) Motmid Khan
(b) Iqbalnama-i- Jahangiri                                   (ii) Saqi Mustaid Khan
(c) Maasir-i- Alamgiri                                         (iii) Khwaza Kamgar Ghairat Khan
(d) Futuhat-i- Alamgiri                                        (iv) Isardas Nagar
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

29. Arrange the following events in chronological order :
(i) Mughal occupation of Balkh
(ii) Introduction of the system of month proportion
(iii) Extinction of Nizamshahi
(iv) Treaty of the Mughals with Bijapur and Golkunda
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

30. Arrange the following in chronological order :
(i) Prince Akbar’s flight to the Deccan
(ii) Conquest of Golkunda by Aurangzeb
(iii) Capture of Chitagong by Shaista Khan
(iv) The institution of Khalsa by Guru Gobind Singh
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

31. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :Assertion (A) : The English East India Company eliminated their Portuguese and
                        Dutch trade rivals by the end of the Seventeenth century.
Reason (R) : The English traders sold goods of superior quality at cheaper rates.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

32. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
       is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The number of Rajput Mansabdars declined in the Mughal nobility during
                        the second half of  Aurangzeb’s reign.
Reason (R) : Aurangzeb assigned large number of Jagirs to nobles from the Deccan.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
                List – I (Book)                                                List – II (Author)
 (a) Indian Painting under the Mughals                           (i) Ashok kumar Das
 (b) Architecture of Mughal India                                  (ii) Moti Chandra
 (c) The Technique of Mughal Painting                          (iii) Percy Brown
(d) Mughal Painting during Jahangir’s Time                   (iv) Catherine B. Asher
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

34. Consider the names of the following Mughal Emperors of the Eighteenth century :
(i) Alamgir II
(ii) Ahmad Shah
(iii) Jahandar Shah
(iv) Muhammad Shah
Which among the following sequences represents the correct chronological order ?
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

35. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
           Assertion (A) : The 1857 Mutiny was suppressed by the British
            Reason (R) : Except for a few like Rani of Jhansi, a very few Indian rulers participated in the  mutiny.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) Both (A) and (R) are false
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false

36. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Dr. Annie Besant organised the Home Rule Movement against the British Rule.
   Reason (R) : She wanted to organise all sections of Indian people on the basis of a single
                        political slogan above religious consideration
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
(B) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
(C) (A) and (R) both are not correct
(D) (A) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

37. In which year did Robert Clive accepted the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa from the Mughal ruler.
(A) 1761
(B) 1765
(C) 1778
(D) 1781

38. The Treaty of Bassien (1802) was signed between :
(A) the English and Peshwa Baji Rao II
(B) the English and Tipu Sultan
(C) the English and Holkar
(D) the English and Gaikwad

39. The Home Rule Movement started by Annie Besant aimed at :
(A) boycotting foreign goods
(B) educating the Indian Masses
(C) attaining self-rule for India
(D) agitating against the British Monopoly in administration

40. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the English East India
      Company factories established in India ?
(i) Surat (ii) Masulipatnam
(iii) Hugli (iv) Balasore
Codes :
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

41. Who was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Annie Besant
(C) Sucheta Kripalani
(D) Madam Cama

42. Who wrote Poverty and Un-British Rule in India ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) R. C. Dutt
(C) Charles Wood
(D) M. N. Roy

43. August 8, 1942 is important in Indian History for
(A) Formation of Indian National Army by Subhash Chandra Bose at Singapore
(B) Cripp’s Proposals for Dominion status
(C) Non-co-operation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Quit India Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi

44. Which is correctly matched :
(A) “Do or Die” – Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) “Swaraj is my birth right” – Mahatma Gandhi
(C) “Give me blood, I will give you freedom – Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) “Independence through nonviolence must be our aim” – B. G. Tilak

45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below
              List – I                                                                  List – II
(a) Freedom at Midnight                                        (i) Collins and Lapierre
(b) The Story of the Integration of Indian States     (ii) C. P. Ramaswami Iyar
(c) Travancore Dewan                                          (iii) V. P. Menon
(d) Secretary of State                                           (iv) Pethick- Lawrence
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

46. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the Viceroys ?
(i) North Brook
(ii) Minto
(iii) Linlithgow
(iv) Mayo
Codes :
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

47. Arrange the following into sequential order and select correct answer from the codes given below :
(i) St. Thomae war
(ii) The Pindari war
(iii) Buxar war
(iv) War of Chandurthi
Codes :
(A) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below
                List – I                                             List – II
           (a) Col. Tod                           (i) Memoir of Central India
(b) JohnMalcolm                               (ii) Annals and Antiquities of Rajasthan
(c) C. R. Wilson                                (iii) Historical Sketches of South India
(d) M. Wilks                                     (iv) Early Annals of the English in Bengal
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below
        List – I                                           List – II
(a) Punjab Tenancy Act                       (i) 1883
(b) The Ilbert Bill                                (ii) 1868
(c) Hunter Commission                      (iii) 1921
(d) Chamber of Princes                     (iv) 1882
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

50. Chronologically arrange the following schools of historical thought as emerged at different points of time
(i) Enlightenment Historiography
(ii) Church Historiography
(iii) Annals Historiography
(iv) Subaltern Historiography
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

UGC NET HISTORY SOLVED PAPER JUNE 2012

                                                        PAPER-III
                                                        HISTORY

1. Match List – I (Archaeological Site) with List – II (Identification) and select the correct answer with the
   help of the code given below :
List – I (Archaeological Site)                                   List – II (Identification)
(a) Bagore                                                       (i) Chalcolithic site of Madhya Pradesh
(b) Brahmagiri                                                 (ii) Megalithic site of Karnataka
(c) Maheshwara                                              (iii) Mesolithic site of Rajasthan
(d) .Tekkalakota                                             (iv) Neolithic site of Karnataka
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

2. Which proto-historic site has yielded the evidence of threads of raw silk ?
(A) Ahar
(B) Inamgaon
(C) Navadatoli
(D) Nevasa

3. Arrange the following Indologists in the chronological order and select the correct answer with the help of
    the code given below :
(i) William Jones
(ii) Alexander Cunningham
(iii) James Burgess
(iv) James Fergusson
Codes :
(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

4. Match List – I (Initiator/Writer) with List – II (Journal/Book) and select the correct answer with the
    help of the code given below :
List – I (Initiator/Writer)                                           List – II (Journal/Book)
(a) William Jones                                                (i) Indian Antiquary
(b) James Fergusson                                          (ii) The Stupa of Bharhut
(c) Alexander Cunningham                                 (iii) Asiatic Researches
(d) James Burgess                                             (iv) Archaeology in India
Codes :
       (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

5. Match List – I (Vedic rivers) with List – II (Present counterparts) and select the correct answer with the
    help of the code given below :
List – I (Vedic Rivers)                                     List – II (Present Counterparts)
(a) Vipas                                                       (i) Jhelum
(b) Parusni                                                   (ii) Ravi
(c) Vitasta                                                    (iii) Beas
(d) Sutudri                                                   (iv) Sutlej
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(C) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

6. The Boghaz Keui inscription from Asia Minor refers to the following Vedic deities :
(A) Indra, Varu . na, Agni and Surya
(B) Indra, Varu . na, Mitra and Agni
(C) Indra, Mitra, Varu . na and Nasatyas
(D) Indra, Mitra, Dyuas and Nasatyas

7. To which of the following tribes did King Sudasa, described in the Rgveda as having defeated ten
    Kings, belong ?
(A) Anu
(B) Druhyu
(C) Tritsu
(D) Yadu

8. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Greek historian Herodotus tells us that ‘India was the twentieth and most
                       prosperous satrapy (province) of the Persian empire’.
Reason (R) : By the time of Alexander’s invasion (327-326 B.C.) all the Persian impact on
                    India had become non-existent.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

9. Who had made the following statement ? ‘Bhagavapi Khatrio ahampi khatrio’ (Bhagawan [Buddha] was a
    Kshatriya I too am a kshatriya).
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Prasenjit
(C) Ajatasatru
(D) Sisunaga

10. Which one of the following Sangam poets has mentioned about the hoarded wealth of the rulers of the
      Nanda dynasty ?
(A) Avvaiyar
(B) Mamulanar
(C) Parnar
(D) Ilango Adigal

11. Match List – I (Officer) with List – II (Department) and select the correct answer with the help of the
     codes given below :
List – I (Officer)                                                         List – II (Department)
(a) Sannidhata                                                 (i) Incharge of revenue collection
(b) Samaharta                                                (ii) Incharge of commerce department
(c) Pa .nyadhaksa                                          (iii) Incharge of the harem guards
(d) Antaravam sika                                        (iv) Incharge of the treasury
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

12. Match List – I (Ruler) with List – II (Associated person) and select the correct answer with the
     help of the codes given below :
List – I (Ruler)                                      List – II (Associated person)
(a) Bimbisara                                       (i) Deimachus
(b) Bindusara                                      (ii) St. Thomas
(c) Ajatasatru                                      (iii) Jivaka
(d) Gondopharnes                                (iv) Vassakara
Codes :
       (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

13. It is generally accepted that a special feature of the period between 200 B.C. and 300 A.D. is
      the increase in external trade. Which of the following factors did not assist in the increase ?
(A) From a political point of view India had become one.
(B) The Mauryas had constructed various roads and introduced uniform system of administration and
      this helped in increase in trade.
(C) Indo-Greek rulers helped by establishing close relations with countries of the Mediterranean and
      West Asia.
(D) The Saka, Parthian and Ku ana rulers helped by establishing close ties with Central Asian rulers.

14. Match List – I (Ancient Monument) with List – II (Characteristic feature) and select the correct
     answer with the help of the codes given below :
    List – I (Ancient Monument)                         List – II (Characteristic feature)
(a) Sa~nchi Stupa                                      (i) Tallest Buddhist structure
(b) Nalanda                                               (ii) Represents Hindu, Buddhist and Jaina religions
(c) Junnar                                                  (iii) Contained the relics of Sariputra  and Maudgalyayana
(d) Ellora                                                   (iv) Rock-cut Chaityahall with circular plan
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

15. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
      (Ruler)                                         (Figure shown on his coin)
(A) Kumaragupta I           –                     Chakrapurusa
(B) Kani. ska                   –                     Ardokso
(C) Agatho cles               –                     Balarama
(D) K. satrapa Rajuvula   –                     Pallas

16. Match List – I (Ancient City) with List – II (Modern Representative) and select the correct answer with
     the help of the codes given below :
    List – I (Ancient City)                                   List - II(Modern Representative)
(a) Dasapura                                                 (i) Halebid
(b) Dvarasamudra                                         (ii) Mandsor
(c) Madhyamika                                           (iii) Nagari
(d) Samapa                                                  (iv) Jaugada
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

17. Who among the following assumed the title of ‘Dharmamaharaja’ which was justified by the
      performance of numerous Vedic sacrifices incuding  the Asvamedha ?
(A) Pu. syamitra
(B) Sarvatata
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Pravarasena I

18. The seat of third Sangam of Tamil poets was located at
(A) Uraiy–ur
(B) Madura
(C) Tanjoreü
(D) Ka~nchi

19. Which one of the following Indian rulers had donated five villages to a Vihara built at Nalanda
      by Sailendra King Sri Balaputra ?
(A) Kumaragupta I
(B) Harsa
(C) Devapala
(D) Bhaskaravarman

20. The rulers of which dynasty of the Deccan have been described by the Arab writers as the four great
      sovereigns of the world ?
(A) Chalukyas of Vatapi
(B) Chalukyas of Kalya
(C) Mauryas of Konkan
(D) Rrakutas of Manyakheta

21. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Rajasekhara – Viddhasalabhanjika
(B) Sri Har. sa – Nai. sadhiya Charita
(C) Mahendravarman – Kavirajamarga
(D) Sudraka – Mrichcha katikam

22. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The growth of regional politics in early medieval India was accompanied by the
                       composition of royal biographies by court poets.
Reason (R) : Sandhyakaranandin’s Ramacharita is written in slesa style and simultaneously tells
                    the story of the epic hero Rama and the Pala King Ramapala.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

23. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and theother is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Sultans of Delhi managed to consolidate an empire comprising a large
                        part of India with their military power.
Reason (R) : The main feature of the Delhi Sultanate was that the sultans based their military
                     power with military elite bound together by Islam and certain tribal affinities.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is true.
(D) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.

24. The first reference of ‘Turkan-i- Chihalgani’ has been made in
(A) Tabqat-i-Nasiri
(B) Futuh-us-Salatin
(C) Kitabur Rehla
(D) Khazain-ul-Futuh

25. Which Mongol general defeated Alauddin Khalji ?
(A) Qadar
(B) Qutlugh Khwaja
(C) Targi
(D) Iqbalmand

26. Diwan-i-Khalsa was responsible to look after the
(A) Land under continuous cultivation
(B) Revenue free land granted as rewards
(C) Land under the direct control of the State
(D) Fallow land

27. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
      List – I                                                             List – II
(a) Malgujar                                                   (i) Hereditary Muslim aristocrats
(b) Mufti                                                        (ii) Local Muslim Association
(c) Anjuman                                                  (iii) Muslim learned person expert in religious law
(d) Khanazad                                                (iv) Landholding primary zamindar
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

28. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
      List – I                                                              List – II
(a) Hundi                                                      (i) Mughal Imperial Order
(b) Dastak                                                   (ii) Bill of Exchange
(c) Sanad                                                    (iii) Advance paid to the primary producers
(d) Dadani                                                  (iv) Permit issued to the European traders for the
                                                                        purpose of tax exemption
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

29. When did the nine cusped arches were for the first time used in Muslim architecture in India ?
(A) Buildings of Sikandar Lodi
(B) Buildings of Sher Shah
(C) Buildings of Nur Jahan
(D) Buildings of Shah Jahan

30. Who amongst the following commented on the rule of the First Afghan Empire in India that ‘there
      was an opportunity to establish in India the constitutional monarchy but the dissensions amongst the
     Afghan nobles let the opportunity pass away’ ?
(A) K.A. Nizami
(B) Peter Jackson
(C) R.P. Tripathi
(D) John F. Richards

31. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Alauddin Khalji ?
(A) He established the department called ‘Diwan-i-Kohi’
(B) Ziyauddin Barni criticizes Alauddin’s taxation policy
(C) Malik Fakhruddin, the Kotwal was loyal to him
(D) His son Qutbuddin Mubarak Khalji declared himself the ‘Caliph’

32. The title of ‘Mujaddid’ was conferred to which Mughal Emperor by the contemporary historians ?
(A) Humayun
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shah Jahan
(D) Aurangzeb

33. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
      List – I                                                                      List – II
(a) Ramanuja                                                               (i) Pushti Marg
(b) Chaitanya                                                              (ii) Nirguna Bhakti
(c) Vallabhacharya                                                      (iii) Vishitadvaita Philosophy
(d) Nanak                                                                  (iv) Gaudiya Vaishnavism
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

34. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
      List – I                                                         List – II
(a) Qadiriya Order                                   (i) Shaikh Badruddin Samarkhandi
(b) Naqsbandiah Order                           (ii) Shah Abdullah
(c) Firdausi Order                                  (iii) Khwaja Baqi Billah
(d) Shuttari Order                                  (iv) Shah Nayamatullah
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

35. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
      List – I                                                                 List – II
(a) Masand                                                            (i) A deputy of the Sikh Guru
(b) Sahajdari                                                         (ii) Non-Khalsa Sikhs
(c) Sardeshmukhi                                                  (iii) A term for Maratha revenue demand
(d) Dal Khalsa                                                      (iv) Sikh religious organization
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(D) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

36. What new stylistic feature is found in the Tomb of Khan-i-Jahan Telangani built at Delhi under the
      Sultans of Delhi ?
(A) Use of white marble against red sand stone
(B) True Arch
(C) Double Dome
(D) Octagonal in planning

37. Which styles of the Sultanate painting paved the way in the foundation of the Mughal style of painting ?
(A) Chaurapanchasika, Laur Chanda and Indo-Persian
(B) Pala, Kashmiri and Laur Chanda
(C) Chaurpanchasika, Kashmiri and Indo-Persian
(D) Indo-Persian, Pala and Kashmiri

38. Consider the following statements and point out the incorrect one :
(A) Babur’s Memoirs provide a flood of light on contemporary affairs.
(B) It exhibits Babur’s interest in nature.
(C) It provides no information about Farghana, Samarqand and Kabul where he spent time.
(D) He throws light on his contemporaries, their good and bad points, including himself.

39. Tulsidas was the author of which book ?
(A) Kavitawali
(B) Ramacharitamanas
(C) Gitawali
(D) All of the above

40. Who among the following is considered as the founder of ‘Varkari’ sect ?
(A) Eknath
(B) Tukaram
(C) Namdeva
(D) Jnanesvara

41. Consider the following statements in the context of organization of Mughal ruling class during the 17th
      century and select the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) An aspect of the composite ruling class was the steady promotion of a small number
     of members belonging to the administrative services.
(B) These members were generally drawn from Khatri and Kayastha castes.
(C) A few Brahmins could also be found amongst this ruling class.
(D) All of the above

42. Which one of the following Mughal painters was a caricaturist ?
(A) Basawan
(B) Manohar
(C) Miskin
(D) Abul Hasan

43. Shah Jahan fought the Battle of Kartarpur against
(A) Guru Hargovind Singh
(B) Guru Har Kishan
(C) Guru Har Rai
(D) Guru Tegh Bahadur

44. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Recurring peasant revolts in the late 17th and early 18th centuries are
                       believed to have been a major cause of the decline of Mughal Empire.
Reason (R) : Regional sentiments against a centralized Mughal State had not been there.
                    In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

45. Which one of the following centre was not a Dutch commercial establishment in India ?
(A) Masulipatam
(B) Karikal
(C) Hugli
(D) Balasore

46. Name the English Officer who obtained Madras on lease in 1639 from the ruler of Chandragiri.
(A) Sir Thomas Roe
(B) Francis Day
(C) Sir George Oxenden
(D) Sir John Child

47. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :
      List – I                                                                    List – II
(a) Second Carnatic War                                           (i) Treaty of Paris
(b) Third Anglo- Mysore War                                   (ii) Treaty of Aixha Chapelle
(c) Second Anglo- Maratha War                              (iii) Treaty of Srirangapatnam
(d) Third Carnatic War                                             (iv) Treaty of Bassein
Codes :
       (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

48. Which one of the following provisions was not part of the Subsidiary Alliance ?
(A) The State has to keep British force under the command of English General.
(B) The State should take prior permission from the Company for waging of war or making
      peace with another State.
(C) The State should not have relation with any European  power except English East India Company.
(D) The State can go for adoption in the case of not having natural heir.

49. Name the Governor General who adopted a policy of the Europeanisation of bureaucracy and
      an exclusion of Indians from higher posts.
(A) Warren Hastings
(B) Cornwallis
(C) Wellesley
(D) Dalhousie

50. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The British introduced different land revenue tenures in different parts of India.
Reason (R) : It led to the impoverishment of Indian peasantry. In the context of above two
                    statements, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

51. Curzon-Kitchner Controversy of 1904-05 is related to
(A) Partition of Bengal
(B) Abolition of military member in the Viceroy’s Council
(C) Direct recruitment of police force
(D) Autonomy of the Calcutta University

52. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :
      List – I                                                                 List – II
(a) Punjab Land Alienation Act                                 (i) 1900
(b) Central Provinces Land Alienation Act                (ii) 1879
(c) North West Provinces Land  Alienation Act        (iii) 1904
(d) Deccan Agricultural Relief Act                            (iv) 1916
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

53. Name the ruler who was deposed in 1875 on charges of ‘gross misrule’.
(A) Gangasingh of Bikaner
(B) Bupendranath Singh of Patiala
(C) Krishna Raja Wadiar of Mysore
(D) Malhar Rao Gaikwad of Baroda

54. The first English Evening Daily Newspaper from Madras was
(A) The Madras Mail
(B) The Madras Chronicle
(C) The Madras Herald
(D) The Madras Standard

55. “Forget not that the lower classes, the ignorant, the poor, the illiterate, the cobbler, the sweeper
       are thy flesh and blood, thy brothers” – These words are related to
(A) Jyotiba Phule
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Swami Vivekananda

56. “The Indian Rebellion of 1857 was not one movement …. it was many”
       – The above statement has been made by
(A) S.N. Sen
(B) R.C. Majumdar
(C) C.A. Bayly
(D) Eric Stokes

57. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :
      List – I                                                                    List – II
(a) Narayan Guru                                                       (i) Rising Sun
(b) Tripuraneni Ramaswamy Choudary                       (ii) Jati  Mimamsa
(c) Venkataraylu Naidu                                              (iii) Shambuka Vadha
(d) Sridharula Naidu                                                  (iv) Veda Samaj
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

58. Select the correct answer from the codes given below about the chronological sequence of the
      movements :
(i) Kuka Movement
(ii) Wahabi Movement
(iii) Mundas Revolt
(iv) Moplah Peasant Revolt
Codes :
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

59. Select the correct answer from the codes given below about the chronological sequence of the Act
      passed :
(i) Brahmo Marriage Act
(ii) Sarada Act
(iii) Hindu Widow’s Re-marriage Act
(iv) Age of Consent Bill
Codes :
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(D) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

60. One of the following Congress leaders did not preside any Session of the Indian National Congress :
(A) Surendranath Bannerjee
(B) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
(C) Bala Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Mahatma Gandhi

61. The first Swadeshi dacoity or robbery was organised in the year 1906 in
(A) Maniktala
(B) Rangapur
(C) Muzaffarpur
(D) Midnapur

62. Who was called ‘Morning Star’ of Reformation ?
(A) Martin Luther
(B) John Calvin
(C) Zwingli
(D) John Wycliffe

63. Who used the word ‘Cold War’ first ?
(A) Winston Churchill
(B) Bernard Baruch
(C) Marshal
(D) Stressman

64. ‘Pure Blood Aryan theory’ is related to
(A) Fascism
(B) Nihalism
(C) Syndicalism
(D) Nazism

65. What position Nelson Mandela occupied in the African National Congress at the time of his release
      from jail after 26 years in 1990 ?
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Secretary
(D) Advisor

66. What was Marshal Plan ?
(A) Control of European powers by military power.
(B) To spread of American Dictatorship in Europe.
(C) Economic package of USA to control Communism.
(D) American Continent is meant for Americans only.

67. A concrete outcome of the Wavell Plan was the
(A) Constitution of the Constituent Assembly
(B) Complete independence for India gradually
(C) Hold a Referendum in the North-West Province
(D) Summoning of the Shimla Conference

68. Which one of the following Committees was appointed by the UPSC in 1974 to go into the issue of
      recruitment and selection methods ?
(A) Bhagwati Committee
(B) D.S. Kothari Committee
(C) A.D. Gorwala Committee
(D) Santhanam Committee

69. Who among the following explicitly states that “History bases all its conclusions on rational evidence” ?
(A) Herodotus
(B) Thucydides
(C) Polybious
(D) Tacitus

70. Which one of the following work was not authored by Leopol von Ranke ?
(A) History of Rome
(B) History of France
(C) History of the Popes
(D) German History at the time of Reformation

Read the following passage carefully and choose the correct answer of the questions
that follow (Q. No. 71 to 75) :

Causation is a concept of such fundamental importance to historical understanding that E.H. Carr in his G.M.
Trevelyan lectures (1961) declared the study of history to be the study of causes. But postmodernist thinking on the issue of historical causation is different. John Vincent would abandon the search for
causes as futile and rather look for explanations. Writing in 1976, Theodore Zeldin thought of causation and
chronology as the two tyrants to historians. Hayden White attacked the concept of
causation as depriving people of both their freedom of action in the present and of control over the future by trapping them in an inescapable network of causation. Postmodernist theory installs interpretation
in the place of empirical research into the causes of specific events.
Since the notion of cause depends on sequential time, some postmodernists attack the latter too. The cause of an occurrence must obviously come before it in time. But the postmodernist historian
and philosopher, Ankersmit, says “Historical time is a recent and highly artificial invention of Western
civilization,” and the writing of historical narrative based on the concept of time, he
has declared, is “building on quicksand.”The postmodernists would prefer that the
idea of sequential time be abandoned in the writing of history. Richard Evans shows how the very idea of
postmodern is paradoxical in that it is contrary to the assertion that there are no time periods in history. And the postmodernist statement that historical time is a thing of the past, itself uses the
historical concept of time which the statement is intended to dismiss. The linear and sequential concept of time is far too powerful a principle to be dispensed with, for it is not an intellectual construct
but a matter of everyday experience for people the world over. Time itself may be
without boundaries, but in terms of human life it passes, and has limits.

71. What is the concept of causation by E.H. Carr ?
(A) History cannot be understood devoid of cause-effect relationship.
(B) History depends on time and space.
(C) It is a matter of every day personal experience to inquire about the basis of an event.
(D) Causes should be undertaken in totality.

72. What does postmodernist think about the Historical causation ?
(A) It is useless to search for it.
(B) It puts limitation on the Historian.
(C) Interpretation is necessary rather than the cause-effect relation.
(D) There are different opinions.

73. Which is not the concept of Time amongst the postmodernists ?
(A) It should not be studied in the interpretation of History.
(B) It puts forth the theory that the interpretation of events be emphasized.
(C) Time deals with past.
(D) The factor of Time has not been thought of by the intellectuals.

74. Who amongst the following wrote that the cause-effect relationship is an obstacle for History ?
(A) Richard Evans
(B) Ankersmit
(C) E.H. Carr
(D) Theodore Zeldin

75. Which one of the following said that the narrative History writing
      considering the Time is like constructing a building on a weak foundation ?
(A) Ankersmit
(B) Theodore Zeldin
(C) Richard Evans
(D) E.H. Carr

UGC NET COMMERCE SOLVED PAPER II JUNE 2012

                                                           COMMERCE
                                                               Paper – II

1. Which of the following denote the structural changes in Indian economy ?
(A) Primary sector contribution has gone down.
(B) Service sector contribution has gone up.
(C) Secondary sector has not changed much.
(D) All of the above

2. Broad Money has to be sensitized through :
(A) CRR
(B) SLR
(C) Repo Rate
(D) All of the above

3. Which one is not an element of legal environment ?
(A) Act of Parliamentarians in Lok Sabha
(B) Indian Contract Act, 1872
(C) Indian Partnership Act, 1932
(D) Negotiable instruments Act, 1881

4. Out of the following, which are four dimensions of Human Development Index ?
(i) Life Expectancy
(ii) Literacy Level
(iii) Success Rate of Marriages
(iv) Standard of Living
(v) Crime Rate
(vi) Corruption Level
(vii) Economic Entitlement
(viii) Foreign Visits
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (vi) and (viii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vii)
(C) (ii), (iii), (vi) and (vii)
(D) (iii), (v), (vii) and (viii)

5. Public Enterprise is defined as
(A) An organisation run by joint efforts of Centre and State Governments.
(B) An organisation which caters to the needs relating to public utilities.
(C) An organisation in which capital is invested by public.
(D) An organisation owned and managed by public authorities for definite set of public purposes.

6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
             List – I                                          List – II
(i) Measurement of income                 (a) Accrues to the equity of owners
(ii) Recognition of expense                 (b) Recognition of revenue
(iii) Basis of realization                       (c) Matching revenue with expenses
(iv) Identification of revenue               (d) Accounting period
Codes :
        (i)   (ii)  (iii)  (iv)
(A)  (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)
(B)  (b)  (a)  (c)  (d)
(C)  (c)  (d ) (a)  (b)
(D)  (c)  (d)  (b)  (a)

7. Consider the following items :
(i) Debentures
(ii) Prepaid rent
(iii) Interest accrued
(iv) Bank overdraft
Which of them are current liabilities ?
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

8. Conversion cost is the sum of
(A) Indirect wages and factory overhead
(B) Direct wages, direct expenses and factory overhead
(C) Direct material cost and indirect wages
(D) Prime cost and selling & distribution overhead

9. (A) Assertion : Premium received on issue of shares is credited to share premium account but not to
                           Profit and Loss account.
    (R) Reasoning : Since share premium is not a trading profit, it is not distributed to shareholders.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation to (A).
(B) (A) is false but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is correct but (R) is false.

10. Consider the following :
(i) Basic defensive and interval ratio
(ii) Current ratio
(iii) Superquick ratio
(iv) Quick ratio
Arrange these ratios in sequence to reflect the liquidity in descending order.
(A) (ii), (iv), (iii) and (i)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii)
(C) (iv), (ii), (iii) and (i)
(D) (iii), (iv), (i) and (ii)

11. Normally Demand curve slopes
(A) Upward
(B) Downward
(C) Horizontal
(D) Vertical

12. Which of the following refers to Perfect Competition ?
(i) There are restrictions on buyers and sellers
(ii) There are no restrictions on movement of goods
(iii) There are no restrictions on factors of production
Correct one is
(A) only (i) and (ii)
(B) only (ii) and (iii)
(C) only (i) and (iii)
(D) only (i)

13. Assertion (A): Total utility will be maximum when marginal utility to price of respective products
                             are equal.
      Reason (R) : Deviation from this situation leads to reduction in maximum utility.
(A) (A) and (R) are not correct.
(B) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(C) (A) and (R) are correct.
(D) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.

14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer.
             List – I                                                 List – II
(i) Survival                                                      (a) Economic Objective
(ii) R.O.I                                                         (b) Natural Urge
(iii) Growth                                                      (c) Business Purpose
(iv) Innovation                                                 (d) Primary Objective
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

15. Consider the oligopoly models :
(i) Sweezy’s kinked demand curve model
(ii) Newman and Morgenstern Game Theory model
(iii) Cournal’s duopoly model
(iv) Baumal’s sales maximisation model
Arrange them in correct sequence as per order of evolution.
(A) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

16. Which of the following is not a restricted random sampling technique ?
(A) Stratified sampling
(B) Simple random sampling
(C) Systematic sampling
(D) Multistage sampling

17. Classification of respondents only on the basis of gender is an application of
(A) Ordinal scale
(B) Nominal scale
(C) Interval scale
(D) Ratio scale

18. Karl Pearson’s co-efficient of correlation between two variables is
(A) the product of their standard deviations
(B) the square root of the product of their regression co-efficients
(C) the co-variance between the variables
(D) None of the above

19. Statistical software packages for research in social sciences include
(A) SPSS
(B) STATA
(C) MiniTab
(D) All of the above

20. F-test is used to test the significance of the differences between/among
(A) Two sample mean
(B) More than two samples mean
(C) Variance of two samples
(D) (B) and (C)

21. Match the following
                 List-I                                                    List-II
(i) The Practice of Management                   (a) Henry Fayol
(ii) Philosophy of Management                     (b) F.W. Taylor
(iii) Scientific Management                            (c) Oliver Sheldon
(iv) General and Industrial Administration      (d) Peter F Drucker
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (d) (c) (b) (a)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (c) (d) (b) (a)

22. Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in planning :
(i) Selecting the best course of action
(ii) Establishing the sequence of activities
(iii) Establishment of objectives
(iv) Evaluating alternative courses
(v) Determining alternative courses
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(B) (iii), (v), (iv), (ii) and (i)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)
(D) (iii), (v), (iv), (i) and (ii)

23. Assertion (A) : One can be sure about future course of actions by making good plans.
      Reasoning (R) : Planning brings certainty in future course of actions of an organisation.
(A) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.
(B) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.

24. According to Kieth Devis, which one is not a barrier of communication ?
(A) Physical Barriers
(B) Technological Barriers
(C) Personal Barriers
(D) Linguistic Barriers

25. While establishing relation between Maslow’s and Herzberg’s theories, which Needs of Hierachy
     Theory will fall under the Hygiene Factors ?
(A) Self actualisation, esteem and social needs
(B) Esteem, social and safety needs
(C) Social, safety and physiological needs
(D) Only social needs

26. Howard-Sueth model of consumer behaviour is popularly known as
(A) Machine Model
(B) Human Model
(C) Marketing Model
(D) Purchase Model

27. To generate and facilitate any exchange intended to satisfy human needs or wants such that the
      satisfaction of these wants occur with minimal detrimental impact on the natural environment is known as
(A) Aggressive marketing
(B) Operating marketing
(C) Green marketing
(D) All of the above

28. All the activities involved in selling goods or services directly to final consumers for
      personal non-business  uses are done by
(A) Wholesalers
(B) Retailers
(C) Mediators
(D) Commission Agents

29. To manage a business well is to manage its future and to manage the future is to manage information is
      termed as
(A) Management information system
(B) Marketing information system
(C) Future information system
(D) General information system

30. DAGMAR approach in marketing is used to measure
(A) Public relations
(B) Advertising results
(C) Selling volume
(D) Consumer satisfaction

31. Which one is not an important objective of Financial Management ?
(A) Profit Maximisation
(B) Wealth Maximisation
(C) Value Maximisation
(D) Maximisation of social benefits

32. Which one refers to cash inflow under payback period method ?
(A) Cash flow before depreciation and taxes
(B) Cash flow after depreciation and taxes
(C) Cash flow after depreciation but before taxes
(D) Cash flow before depreciation and after taxes

33. The concept of present value is based on the :
(A) Principle of compounding
(B) Principle of discounting
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

34. Cost of capital from all the sources of funds is called
(A) Specific cost
(B) Composite cost
(C) Implicit cost
(D) Simple Average cost

35. Match the following with most suitable option :
(a) Modigiliani- Miller Approach                        (i) Commercial papers
(b) Net Operating Income Approach                 (ii) Working Capital Management
(c) Short term Money Market Instrument          (iii) Capital Structure
(d) Factoring                                                    (iv) Arbitrage
Codes :
        (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)
(A)  (iv)  (iii)  (i)  (ii)
(B)  (iii)  (iv)  (i)  (ii)
(C)  (iii)  (ii)  (i)  (iv)
(D)  (iii)  (ii)  (iv)  (i)

36. Which four are the factors influencing the Human Resource Management of an organisation ?
(i) Size of workforce
(ii) Employee Expectations
(iii) Composition of workforce
(iv) Political influence
(v) Changes in technology
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i),(ii), (iii) and (v)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

37. Assertion (A) : One can not be sure about the quality of appraisal on the basis of length of service.
      Reasoning (R) : Initial appraisal and promotional appraisal are done separately and differently since
      the length of service is different.
(A) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.
(B) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(C) (A) and (R) both are correct.
(D) (A) and (R) both are not correct.

38. Which of the following are covered under the scope of Human Resource Management ?
(i) Forecasting Human Resource Needs
(ii) Replacement Planning
(iii) Human Resource Dynamics
(iv) Human Resource Development Planning
(v) Human Resource Audit
(A) (i), (iii), (v)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (iii), (v)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
 
39. On which of the following, at the initial stage, the Indian IT companies relying more for getting good IT
      professionals ?
(A) Job Portals
(B) Placement Agencies
(C) Campus Placement
(D) All of the above

40. Statement (i) : Labour always get a major share of productivity gains.
      Statement (ii) : Partial stoppage of work by workers amounts to strike.
(A) Statement (i) is true but (ii) is false.
(B) Statement (ii) is true but (i) is false.
(C) Both statements are true.
(D) Both statements are false
.
41. Imperial Bank was established on January 27, 1921 on the advise of
(A) J. M. Keynes
(B) Lord Illingworth
(C) King George V
(D) Winston Churchill

42. Read the following events :
(i) Allowing convertibility of rupee at the market rate in the current account
(ii) Nationalisation of general insurance business
(iii) Establishment of IDBI
(iv) Nationalisation of life insurance business
(v) Capital adequacy norms for commercial banks
Arrange the events in the ascending order of their occurrence :
(A) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i), (v)
(B) (v), (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv)
(D) (i), (v), (ii), (iv), (iii)

43. In India, the Commercial Banks are given license of operation by
(A) The Government of India
(B) The Ministry of Finance
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) Banking Companies Regulation Act, 1949

44. The provisions of General Reserve in Banking Companies are made keeping
      in view the provisions of
(A) Indian Companies Act, 1956
(B) Banking Companies Act, 1949
(C) SEBI Act, 1992
(D) Statutory Auditor

45. Which among the following is not true with regard to merchant banker ?
(i) It can accept deposits.
(ii) It can advance loans.
(iii) It can do other banking activities.
(iv) It can be manager to a public issue.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iv)

46. Balance of Payments can be made favourable if
(A) Exports are increased
(B) Imports are increased
(C) Devaluation of money
(D) (A) and (C)

47. Which one is not an objective of IMF ?
(A) To promote international monetary co-operation
(B) To ensure balanced internationaltrade
(C) To finance productive effortsaccording to peace-timerequirement
(D) To ensure exchange rate stability

48. EPCG denotes
(A) Export Potential and CreditGuarantee
(B) Earning Promotion and CreditGuarantee
(C) Export Promotion and CreditGuarantee
(D) Export Potential and CreditGoods

49. Which one of the following matches correspond to the Member and
     Observer countries of the SAARC ?
(i) India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka Afghanistan, Maldive
(ii) Iran, China, Japan, USA, South Korea, European Union
(iii) Pakistan, Nepal, India,Bangladesh, Iran
(iv) UK, USA, North Korea, South Africa
(A) (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)

50. Which one is not an international organisation ?
(A) SAARC
(B) ASEM
(C) ASEAN
(D) CBDT