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Friday 29 November 2013

UGC NET EDUCATION PAPER II SOCIOLOGICAL FOUNDATIONS OF EDUCATION

     UGC NET EDUCATION PAPER II SOCIOLOGICAL FOUNDATIONS OF EDUCATION   I

  1. Education is a  social necessity

  2. By educational sociology we mean the science which describes and explains the institutions,
      the social groups and social processes - that in the social relationship in which or through
      which the individual gains and organizes his experience' is upheld by  George Payne

  3. Who has written the book 'The School and the Society'? John Dewey 

  4. Who coined the word Sociology? August Comte.

  5. 'By Sociology, I mean the application of the scientific method of study of the relationship between  
      society and individual'  August Comte.

  6. The word Sociology is derived from both Greek and Latin word 

  7. The term 'Sociology' is derived from Latin word Societus

  8. Sociology studies the  1. society as a whole 2. Individual as a member of the society 

  9. The book 'Principles of Society was written by  Herbert Spencer. 

10. Sociology is a science which interprets social behaviour with the aim of arriving a casual explanation of    
      human behaviour is commented by  Max Weber 

11. Who considered to be the chief exponent of sociology Herbert Spencer

12. Sociology is concerned with  1. Social Interactions 2. Social Structure 3. Social control 

13. 'Sociology is the study of the human interaction and interrelation, their conditions and consequences'
      is said by: Ginsberg 

14. The aims of sociology includes 1. studying various social changes.
                                                    2. Explaining the nature of social groups

15. August Comte was a French Philosopher.

16. Who defined sociology as a study of the nature of social relationships Maclver

17. August Comte belonged to 17th century 

18. The birth of sociology can be traced from the: 1. Influence of French Revolution
                                                                           2. Influence of the Industrial
                                                                           3. Impact of Democracy.

19. Who is considered to be the father of sociology? August Comte.

20. 'Educational sociology is the scientific study between education and society' is said by: Ottoway

21. Educational Sociology is the study of the interaction of the individual and his cultural environment, 
      which includes other individuals, social groups and patterns of behaviour' is upheld by:  Brown

22. 'Educational Sociology is interested in the impact of total cultural milieu in which and through  
      which experience is acquired and organised' is commented by Clarke 

23. The study of principles of sociology as applied to the theory and practice of education is called
      Educational Sociology.

24. Analysis of the sociological processes involved in the functioning of educational institutions is called:
      Sociology of Education 

25. Who said that ' Educational Sociology is the study of those phases of sociology that
      are of signicicance  for educative process'? Carter 
      


  


Friday 15 November 2013

UGC NET JUNE 2013 SOLVED ENGLISH Paper – II

                           UGC NET 2013 SOLVED ENGLISH Paper – II

1. In Pinter’s Birthday Party, Stanley is given a birthday present. What is it ?
(A) A toy
(B) A piano
(C) A drum
(D) A violin

2. How does Lord Jim end ?
(A) Jim is shot through the chest by Doramin.
(B) Jim kills himself with a last unflinching glance.
(C) Jim answers “the call of exalted egoism” and betrays Jewel.
(D) Jim surrenders himself to Doramin
.
3. “Where I lacked a political purpose, I wrote lifeless books.” To which of the following authors can we
     attribute the above admission ?
(A) Graham Greene
(B) George Orwell
(C) Charles Morgan
(D) Evelyn Waugh

4. Modernism has been described as being concerned with “disenchantment of our culture with
    culture itself”. Who is the critic ?
(A) Stephen Spender
(B) Malcolm Bradbury
(C) Lionel Trilling
(D) Joseph Frank

5. “Only that film, which fluttered on the grate, Still flutters there, the sole unquiet thing.” The above lines
      are  quoted from
(A) “Tintern Abbey Revisited”
(B) “Michael”
(C) “Frost at Midnight”
(D) “This Lime-Tree Bower, My Prison”

6. Which one of the following modern poems employs ottava rima ?
(A) “Among School Children”
(B) “In Praise of Limestone”
(C) “The Wild Swans at Coole”
(D) “The Shield of Achilles”

7. John Dryden in his heroic tragedy All for Love takes the story of Shakespeare’s
(A) Troilus and Cressida
(B) The Merchant of Venice
(C) Antony and Cleopatra
(D) Measure for Measure

8. Arrange the following works in the order in which they appear. Identify the correct code :
I. No Longer at Ease
II. Things Fall apart
III. A Man of the People
IV. Arrow of God The correct combination according to the code is :
Code :
(A) III, IV, II, I
(B) IV, III, I, II
(C) II, I, IV, III
(D) I, II, III, IV

9. Samuel Pepys kept his diary from
(A) 1660 to 1669
(B) 1649 to 1660
(C) 1662 to 1689
(D) 1660 to 1689

10. In the De fence of Poetry, what did Sydney attribute to poetry ?
(A) A magical power whereby poetry plays tricks on the reader.
(B) A divine power whereby poetry transmits a message from God to the reader.
(C) A moral power whereby poetry encourages the reader to evaluate virtuous models.
(D) A realistic power that cannot be made to seem like mere illusion and trickery.

11. An Epistle to Dr. Arbuthnot presents portraits of the following contemporary individuals :
(A) Addison and Lord Hervey
(B) Dryden and Rochester
(C) Swift and Steele
(D) Smollett and Defoe
 
12. Match the following authors with their works :
       List – A                                     List – B
      (Authors)                                 (Works)
I. Alice Walker                         1. Invisible Man
II. Ralph Ellison                        2. The ColorPurple
III. Richard Wright                    3. Their Eyes Were Watching God    
IV. Zora Neale Hurston            4. Native Son

 Which is the correct combination according to the code :
Code :
      I II III IV
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 2 4 3

13. Which of these plays by Shakespeare does not use ‘cross-dressing’ as a device ?
(A) As You Like It
(B) Julius Caeser
(C) Cymbeline
(D) Two Gentlemen of Verona

14. Which of the following works cannot be categorised under postcolonial theory ?
(A) Nation and Narration
(B) Orientalism
(C) Discipline and Punish
(D) White Mythologies

15. Locke’s Essay Concerning Human Understanding is a classic statement of _________ Philosophy.
(A) Aesthetic
(B) Empiricist
(C) Nationalist
(D) Realist

16. “Power circulates in all directions, to and from all social levels, at all times.” Who said this ?
(A) Edward Said
(B) Michel Foucault
(C) Jacques Derrida
(D) Roland Barthes

17. Which one of the following is not written by an Australian Aboriginal writer ?
(A) Kath Walker
(B) Peter Carey
(C) Robert Bropho
(D) Jack Davis

18. Sir Thomas Wyatt and the Earl of Surrey jointly brought out Tottel’s Miscellany during the Renaissance. Identify the name of the Earl of Surrey from the following :
(A) Thomas Lodge
(B) Thomas Nashe
(C) Thomas Sackville
(D) Henry Howard

19. Match the following lists :
         List – I                                            List – I
     (Novelists)                                        (Novels)
I. Margaret Laurence                         1. Surfacing
II. Margaret Atwood                         2. The Stone Angel
III. Sinclair Ross                                3. Medicine River
IV. Thomas King                               4. As for Me and My House
Which is the correct combination according to the code :
Code :
      I II III IV
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3

20. The dramatic structure of Restoration comedies combines in it the features of
I. The Elizabethan Theatre
II. The Neoclassical Theatre of Italy and France
III. The Irish Theatre
IV. The Greek Theatre The correct combination according to the code is :
Code :
(A) I and IV are correct.
(B) III and IV are correct.
(C) II and III are correct.
(D) I and II are correct.

21. Which American poet wrote : “I sound my barbaric yawp over the roofs of the world” ?
(A) Robert Lowell
(B) Walt Whitman
(C) Wallace Stevens
(D) Langston Hughes

22. The etymological meaning of the word “trope” is
(A) gesture (B) turning (C) mirror (D) desire

23. Who among the following English poets defined poetic imagination as “a repetition in the finite mind of
      the eternal act of creation in the infinite ‘I AM’ ” ?
(A) Blake
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Coleridge
(D) Shelley

24. Little Nell is a character in Dickens’
(A) David Copperfield
(B) The Old Curiosity Shop
(C) Bleak House
(D) Great Expectations

25. Match the following :
         List – A                                                                    List – B
(Schools/Concept of Criticism)                                           (Critics)
I. Formalism                                                             1. John Crow Ransom
II. New Critics                                                         2. The Jungians
III. Psychological Theory of the Value of Literature    3. Victor Shklovsky
IV. Literary art as archetypal image                           4. I.A. Richards The correct combination according
                                                                                   to  the code is :
Code :
    I II III IV
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 1 4

26. In the late seventeenth century a “Battle of Books” erupted between which two groups ?
(A) Cavaliers and Roundheads
(B) Abolitionists and Enthusiasts for slaves
(C) Champions of Ancient and Modern Learning
(D) The Welsh and the Scots

27. “Everything that man esteems Endures a moment or a day Love’s pleasure drives his love away…”
       In the above quote the last line is an example of
(A) allusion (B) pleonasm (C) paradox (D) zeugma
 
28. Match the author with the work :
         List – I                                       List – II
(Authors) (Works)
I. Kingsely Amis                        1. Saturday and Sunday Morning
II. Allan Silletoe                         2. The Golden Note Book
III. Doris Lessing                       3. The Left Bank
IV. Jean Rhys                             4. Lucky Jim
Which is the correct combination according to the code :
Code :
       I II III IV
(A) 3 4  1   2
(B) 4 1  2   3
(C) 2 3  1   4
(D) 1 2  3   4

29. In which of Hardy’s novels does the character Abel Whittle appear ?
(A) Far from the Madding Crowd
(B) The Return of the Native
(C) A Pair of Blue Eyes
(D) The Mayor of Casterbridge

30. The phrase “dark Satanic mills” has become the most famous description of the force
      at the centre of the industrial revolution. The phrase was used by
(A) William Wordsworth
(B) William Blake
(C) Thomas Carlyle
(D) John Ruskin

31. “Five miles meandering with a mazy motion Through wood and dale the scared river ran.”
       Where does this ‘sacred river’ directly run to ?
(A) A lifeless ocean
(B) The caverns measureless
(C) A fountain
(D) The waves

32. Who is the twentieth century poet, a winner of the Nobel Prize for literature who rejected
       the label “British” though he has always written in English rather than his regional language ?
(A) Douglas Dunn
(B) Seamus Heaney
(C) Geoffrey Hill
(D) Philip Larkin

33. Which of the following statements best describes Sir Thomas Browne’s Religio Medici ?
(A) It is a story of conversion or providential experiences.
(B) It emphasizes Browne’s love of mystery and wonder.
(C) It is full of angst, melancholy and dread of death.
(D) It reports the facts of Browne’s life.

34. Which of the following characters from Eliot’s Waste Land is not correctly mentioned ?
(A) The typist
(B) Madam Sosostris
(C) The Merchant from Eugenides
(D) The Young Man Carbuncular

35. Which one of the following best describes the general feeling expressed in literature
      during the last decade of the Victorian era ?
(A) Studied melancholy and aestheticism
(B) The triumph of science and morbidity
(C) Sincere earnestness and Protestant zeal
(D) Raucous celebration combined with paranoid interpretation

36. Which poem by Shelley bears the alternative title, “The Spirit of Solitude” ?
(A) Mont Blanc
(B) “Hymn to Intellectual Beauty”
(C) “Adonais”
(D) Alastor

37. Which tale in The Canterbury Tales uses the tradition of the Beast Fable ?
(A) The Knight’s Tale
(B) The Monk’s Tale
(C) The Nun’s Priest’s Tale
(D) The Miller’s Tale

38. At the end of Sons and Lovers Paul Morel
(A) sets off in quest of life away from his mother.
(B) considers the option of committing suicide.
(C) joins his elder brother William in London.
(D) embraces a Schopenhauer – like nihilism.

39. When you say “I love her eyes, her hair, her nose, her cheeks, her lips” you are
      using a rhetorical device of
(A) Enumeration
(B) Antanagoge
(C) Parataxis
(D) Hypotaxis

40. The following are two lists of plays and characters. Match them.
         List – I                                                List – II
         (Plays)                                            (Characters)
I. Women Beware Women                      1. Malevole
II. The Malcontent                                  2. Beatrice
III. The City Madam                               3. Bianca
IV. The Changeling                                 4. Doll Tearsheet
Which is the correct combination according to the code :
Code :
   I II III IV
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 1 2 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 3 2 1

41. With Bacon the essay form is
(A) an intimate, personal confession
(B) witty and boldly imagistic
(C) the aphoristic expression of accumulated public wisdom
(D) homely and vulgar


42. Evelyn Waugh’s Trilogy published together as Sword of Honour is about
(A) The English at War
(B) The English Aristocracy
(C) The Irish question
(D) Scottish nationalism

43. Who coined the phrase “The Two Nations” to describe the disparity in Britain between
    the rich and the poor ?
(A) Charles Dickens
(B) Thomas Carlyle
(C) Benjamin Disraeli
(D) Frederick Engels

44. Milton introduces Satan and the fallen angels in the Book I of Paradise Lost.
     Two of the chief devils reappear in Book II. They are
I. Moloch
II. Clemos
III. Belial
IV. Thamuz
The correct combination according to the code is
Code :
(A) I and IV are correct.
(B) I and III are correct.
(C) I and II are correct.
(D) II and III are correct.

45. When Chaucer describes the Friar as a “noble pillar of order”, he is using
(A) irony
(B) simile
(C) understatement
(D) personification

46. John Osborne’s Look Back in Anger is an example of
(A) drawing room comedy
(B) kitchen-sink drama
(C) absurd drama
(D) melodrama

47. Which character in Jane Eyre uses religion to justify cruelty ?
(A) Blanche Ingram
(B) Mr. Brocklehurst
(C) Sir John Rivers
(D) Eliza Reed

48. Which Romantic poet defined a slave as ‘a person perverted into a thing’ ?
(A) Blake
(B) Coleridge
(C) Keats
(D) Shelley

49. John Suckling belongs to the group of
(A) Metaphysical poets
(B) Cavalier poets
(C) Neo-classical poets
(D) Religious poets

50. Sir Thomas More creates the character of a traveller into whose mouth the account
     of Utopia is put. His name is
(A) Michael
(B) Raphael
(C) Henry
(D) Thomas

UGC NET JUNE 2013 SOLVED COMMERCE PAPER III


                                  UGC NET JUNE 2013 SOLVED COMMERCE PAPER III

1. Under the provisions of the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951, a licence is necessary for
(A) Changing the location of an existing industrial undertaking.
(B) producing or manufacturing a ‘new article’ in an existing industrial undertaking.
(C) Establishing a new undertaking.
(D) All of the above.

2. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the correct answer.
             List – I                                                                  List – II
(i) Political and Legal Environment                        (a) Important for industries directly depending on
                                                                                imports or exports.
(ii) Demographic Environment                               (b) Close relationship with the economic system
                                                                                 and economic policy.
(iii) Economic Environment                                   (c) Related to natural resources.
(iv) Geographical and Ecological Environment       (d) Occupational and spatial mobilities of population
                                                                                  having implications for business.
Codes :
      (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (d) (c) (a)
(B) (b) (d) (a) (c)
(C) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(D) (a) (b) (d) (c)

3. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the correct answer :
    List – I                                 List – II
(i) SLR                        (a) Working in the field of consumer protection.
(ii) SIDBI                    (b) Credit control.
(iii) CUTS                   (c) Industrial policy.
(iv) ILPIC                   (d) Facilitating Small Scale Industries.
Codes :
      (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (a) (c) (d) (b)
(B) (b) (d) (a) (c)
(C) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(D) (a) (c) (b) (d)

4. Match the following :
              List – I                                                                 List – II
(i) National Stock Exchange                                  (a) Marks the beginning of
                                                                                 the process of dematerialisation of shares of
                                                                                 the participating companies.
(ii) National Securities Depository Limited            (b) Facilitation of equal access to investors across
                                                                                 the country.
(iii) Securities and Exchange Board of India          (c) To foster the development of an active
                                                                                secondary market for Government Securities.
(iv) Securities Trading Corporation of India          (d) Abolition of Capital issues control and retaining
                                                                                the sale authority for new capital issues.
Codes :
      (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(B) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) (a) (b) (d) (c)
(D) (d) (c) (b) (a)

5. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) was set up in
(A) 1944 (B) 1954 (C) 1960 (D) 1964

6. Indicate the ground on which a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, shall be invalid.
(A) A product having short weight.
(B) A service provided free of cost.
(C) A misleading advertisement given in newspaper.
(D) None of the above.

7. Out of the following, which are the four components of food security ?
(i) Food availability
(ii) Food market
(iii) Food accessibility
(iv) Food utilization
(v) Food credit
Codes :
(A) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

8. Performance evaluation of a responsibility centre can be done by
(A) ROI
(B) Return on sales
(C) EVA
(D) All of the above

9. Social Balance Sheet shows
(A) Social costs
(B) Social revenues
(C) Value of employees of the organisation
(D) All of the above

10. Which of the following comes under efficiency ratios ?
(A) Average collection period
(B) Inventory turnover ratio
(C) Fixed assets turnover ratio
(D) All of the above

11. Match the items of the following two lists :
            List – I                                                          List – II
(i) Statement of changes in Working Capital    (a) Cash Flow Statement
(ii) Deferred Tax                                            (b) Fixed Assets
(iii) Three activities                                         (c) Funds Flow Statement
(iv) Impairment Loss                                      (d) Balance Sheet
Codes :
       (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (c) (d) (b) (a)
(C) (c) (d) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (c) (a) (b)

12. Match the items of the following two lists and indicate the correct answer :
         List – I                                                 List – II
(i) Earning ability of firm                      (a) Basis of Accounting
(ii) Conservatism                                 (b) P/V ratio
(iii) Cash profit                                    (c) Cash flow statement
(iv) Cash and Accrual                          (d) Prudence
Codes :
       (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (d) (c) (a)
(B) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(C) (c) (d) (a) (b)
(D) (c) (d) (b) (a)

13. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
      Assertion (A) : Only the relevant costs should be taken into consideration for decisionmaking.
      Reason (R) : All variable costs are relevant costs and all fixed costs are irrelevant costs. In the
      above two statements, which one alternative of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) Only (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(C) Only (R) is correct, but (A) is wrong.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

14. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
      Assertion (A) : Variance analysis is undertaken for planning and control of costs.
      Reason (R) : Future costs are taken into consideration in budgeting and standard costing
    . In the above  two statements, which one alternative of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the Reason for (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct  and (R) is not the Reason for(A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct
.
15. Assertion (A) : Mark-up pricing is a method of determining price.
      Reason (R) : P = ATC + (m × ATC) is the expression for that.
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct.

16. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the correct answer.
        List – I                                   List – II
(a) Economic profit              (i) Total Revenue Explicit cost
(b) Accounting profit           (ii) Buyers and Sellers exchanging
(c) Collusion/ Cartel            (iii) Total Revenue – Total cost
(d) Market                          (iv) Oligopoly
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B)  (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

17. Which one is not the item of economic cost to the business ?
(A) Owner supplied resources.
(B) Market supplied resources.
(C) Implicit costs.
(D) Non-monetary opportunity costs of using owner supplied resources.

18. Demand must have the elements
(A) Desire
(B) Want
(C) Quantity, Price and Time
(D) All of the above

19. Match the items of List-I and items of List-II and select the correct code for the answer.
            List – I                                       List – II
(a) Utilitarian Approach               (i) Marginal Rate of Substitution
(b) Ordinal Approach                 (ii) Budget line & Indifference Curve
(c) Price- Consumption Curve    (iii) U=f (x, y)
(d) Consumer Equilibrium           (iv) MRSxy =\ MRSyx
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)  (i)  (iv) (iii) (ii)
(B)  (ii)  (iii) (iv) (i)
(C)  (iii) (i)  (ii) (iv)
(D)  (iv) (ii)  (i) (iii)

20. The Learner Index measures
(A) Market power
(B) Price
(C) Price-Marginal cost
(D) None of the above

21. Match the items of List-I and items of List-II and select the correct answer.
          List – I                                          List – II
(a) Perfect competition                  (i) Different prices for the same product
(b) Monopolistic competition        (ii) Dominant strategy
(c) Oligopoly                                (iii) Product differentiation
(d) Discriminating Monopoly         (iv) Identical product
Codes :
      (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)
(A) (iv) (iii)  (ii)  (i)
(B)  (i)  (ii)  (iii) (iv)
(C) (ii)  (iv)  (i) (iii)
(D) (iii) (i)   (iv) (ii)

22. If there are 8 possible classes under consideration for a goodness of-fit, the number of degrees
      of  freedom will be
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) Cannot be determined from the given information.

23. Identify from the following, the test statistic for which the value of numerator should always be greater
      than that of denominator.
(A) ‘Chi-square’ (B) ‘F’ value (C) ‘Z’ value (D) ‘t’ value

24. Which of the following tests can be applied to ordinal scale data ?
(i) Chi-square test
(ii) ‘Z’ test
(iii) Kruskal-Wallis test
(iv) Wilcoxon Mann-Whitney test
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iv) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

25. Which of the following tests can be based on the normal distribution ?
(A) Difference between independent means
(B) Difference between dependant means
(C) Difference between proportions
(D) All of the above

26. From the following, identify one situation where ‘F’ test cannot be used ?
(A) To compare more than two population means.
(B) To test the hypothesis about a single population variance.
(C) To test the hypothesis about two-population variance.
(D) To study about randomized block design.

27. Which statistical test should be applied to test the effectiveness of ‘special coaching’ on
      the marks  scored by the students ?
(A) Paired ‘t’ test
(B) ‘Chi-square’ test
(C) ‘Z’ test
(D) ‘F’ test
28. In a linear equation, y = a + bx, ‘a’ refers to
(A) Slope
(B) Y-intercept
(C) Dependant variable
(D) Independent variable

29. Which among the following is the most popular approach for accomplishing the results ?
(A) Management by exception
(B) Reward system
(C) Management by objectives
(D) Mentor system

30. The managerial function of organizing involves
(A) Reviewing and adjusting plan in the light of changing conditions.
(B) Establishing programme for the accomplishment of objectives.
(C) Creating structure of functions and duties to be performed.
(D) Getting things done through others.

31. A leader who identifies what subordinates need to do to achieve objectives, clarify organizational
      roles and tasks, set up an organization structure, reward performance and provide for the social
      needs of their followers, is
(A) a transformational leader
(B) a participative leader
(C) a transactional leader
(D) an autocratic leader

32. Which of the following is not an assumption of theory X ?
(A) An average human being has an inherent dislike of work and will avoid it if he can.
(B) An average human being prefers to be directed, seeks to avoid responsibility, has relatively
      little ambition, and want security above all.
(C) An average human being learns under proper conditions, not only to accept responsibility but
      also to  seek it.
(D) Most people must be coerced, controlled, directed and threatened with punishment to get them
      put forth adequate effort.
33. If a network of interpersonal relationship that arise when people associate with each other is an
      informal organization, then find out which of the following is not an informal organization ?
(A) The “machine shop” group
(B) Customers’ group
(C) The “sixth floor” group
(D) The “Friday evening bowling” gang

34. Which of the following are sources of ethics ?
(i) Religion
(ii) Legal system
(iii) Economic system
(iv) Culture
(v) Family system Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iv), (v)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

35. Which of the following has refined Maslow’s theory of motivation by proposing a hierarchy of
      three needs ?
(A) MeClel land (B) Aldorfer (C) Herzburg (D) Vroom

36. Which segmentation approach is the most compatible with the spirit of the marketing concept ?
(A) Benefit sought
(B) Income
(C) Social class
(D) Family size

37. The description of a product’s quality, features, style, brand name and packaging identifiers the
(A) Actual product
(B) Augmented product
(C) Core product
(D) Tangible product

38. Consider the following statements and find out the correct alternative from the codes given below :
(i) A firm’s marketing information system is a component of its marketing research system.
(ii) The most common forms of marketing researches conducted in most of the firms are the measurement
     of  market potential and the analysis of market share.
(iii) Survey research is seldom used for studying consumer perception and attitudes.
(iv) The concept of cognitive dissonance is relevant to study consumer’s post-purchase behaviour.
Codes :
(A) All the statements are true.
(B) All the statements are false.
(C) (i) is false and the rest are true.
(D) (ii) and (iv) are true and the rest are false.

39. In India, which pricing practice is not permissible ?
(A) Penetrating pricing
(B) Skimming pricing
(C) Predatory pricing
(D) None of the above

40. Consider the following statements and find out the correct alternative from the codes given below :
(i) A good salesman is one who can sell refrigerator to an Eskimo.
(ii) Salesmen are born, not made.
(iii) Physical distribution is an area where high cost-savings is possible.
Codes :
(A) (i) and (iii) are correct.
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All are correct.

41. Which form of retail outlet has the highest operating costs ?
(A) Super market
(B) Consumer co-operative store
(C) Department store
(D) Retail chain store

42. Consider the following statements and indicate the correct alternative from the codes given below :
(i) The product management system often turns out to be costly.
(ii) When customers belong to different user groups with distinct buying preferences and practices,
      a market management organization is not suitable.
(iii) Advertising department has the closest interface with the finance department of the company.
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) Only (i) is correct.
(D) All are correct.

43. Match the statements in List-I with dividend models in List-II as follows :
                 List – I                                                                   List – II
I Dividend Capitalisation Approach                                 .1. Traditional Model
II Dividend Policy has a bearing on the share valuation.     2. Gardon Model
III Stock Market places more weight on dividends than
on retain earnings.                                                            3. Walter Model
IV Dividend payout is irrelevant to the value of the firm    .4. Modigliani and Miller
Model
Codes :
      I II III IV
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 3 4 2 1

44. Venture capital financing at starting stage is generally not done through
(A) Debt instruments
(B) Deep discount bonds
(C) Equity shares
(D) Conditional loans

45. Match the statements in List-I with the types of lease in the List-II as follows :
                                List – I                                                            List – II
 I Lessor transfers all risks and rewards of an asset to the lessee. 1. Indirect lease
 II Lessor transfers the
assets to the lessee but bears the cost of maintenance                  2. Operating lease
III The owner of the asset sells it to the
lessor who in turn leases it back to the owner (now lessee)          3. Finance lease
 IV Lessor owns/ acquires the assets that are leased to given les  4. Direct lease
Codes :
     I II III IV
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 1 3 2

46. Full details for the issue of ADRs by a company must be furnished within 30 days from
      the date of its  closure to
(A) Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)
(B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(C) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(D) Company Law Board (CLB)

47. The degree to which the returns of the two securities change together, is reflected by
(A) Correlation (B) Leverage (C) Covariance (D) Beta

48. The transfer by a company of one or more of its business divisions to another newly
      set u company is called
(A) Demerger
(B) Merger
(C) Equity Carve-out
(D) Disinvestment

49. What combination of the following factors influences the working capital requirement ?
I Market Conditions
II Production Policy
III Firm’s goodwill
IV Supply conditions
Codes :
(A) I, II and III
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II and IV

50. Which of the followings are the modern method of performance appraisal ?
(i) 360 degree performance appraisal.
(ii) Graphic rating scale.
(iii) Management By Objectives (MBO).
(iv) Forced distribution method.
(v) Behaviourally Anchored
Rating Scales (BARS). Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (ii), (iv), (v) (C) (i), (iii), (v) (D) (iv), (ii), (i)

51. Which of the following principle serves as a warning to organisations not to take the selection and
       promotion process lightly ?
(A) Promotion Principle
(B) Drucker Principle
(C) Validity Principle
(D) Peter Principle

52. According to D. Katz morale has four dimensions :
(i) jobs satisfaction
(ii) satisfaction with wages and promotional opportunities.
(iii) Identification with company.
(iv) Pride in the work group.
(v) Top Management Support.
Select the correct combination.
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv), and (v)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

53. HRM is viewed as a management process, consisting of four functional activities :
(i) Acquisition
(ii) Motivation
(iii) Development
(iv) Resolution of industrial disputes
(v) Maintenance Select the correct combination.
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

54. O C TA PA C stands for
(A) Order, Co-ordination, Trust, Authority, Personality and Cooperation.
(B) Openness, Confrontation, Trust, Authenticity, Pro-action and Collaboration.
(C) Organisation, Conflict, Team, Authority, People and Collaboration.
(D) Oneness, Compromise, Tress pass, Authority, Protection and Combination.

55. Technique of ‘Transaction Analysis’ was developed by
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) Eric Berne
(D) Adam Smith

56. Which one of the following methods is not a demand forecasting method of Human Resource Planning ?
(A) Managerial judgement
(B) Managerial grid
(C) Work study techniques
(D) Statistical techniques

57. Transaction of Internet Banking excludes
(A) Withdrawal of cash any wherein India.
(B) Statement of account for a specific period.
(C) Transfer of funds from one account to another account.
(D) Balance enquiry
.
58. Which among the following is not a category of Non-Performing Assets ?
(A) Substandard Assets
(B) Doubtful Debts
(C) Loss Assets
(D) Devaluated Assets

59. When a loan will be NPA ?
(A) Interest and/or loan installments overdue for more than 90 days.
(B) Account is out of order for more than 90 days in case of overdraft/cash credit.
(C) Bill remains overdue for more than 90 days.
(D) All of the above.

60. Assertion (A) : “The problem orural credit is not primarily one of rural credit, it may
     be said to be one of  rural minded credit.”
     Reason (R) : The Indian economy has yet to come out of rural mentality.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.

61. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the correct answer :
              List – I                                                  List – II
(i) Debit card                                            (a) Several storage
(ii) Credit card                                          (b) Online recovery of amount
(iii) Electronic purse                                  (c) Image processing use
(iv) Cheque function                                  (d) Revolving credit
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (c) (a) (d) (b)
(B) (a) (b) (d) (c)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (c) (b) (a)

62. Assertion (A) : The Indian economy could survive in the recent global recession due to its
                             strong banking system.
         Reason (R) : The Indian economy contains a large amount of black money.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the explanation of (A).
(B) Both(A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (R) is correct, but (A) is not the appropriate assertion of (R).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

63. Assertion (A) : Most of the development bank in India have setup private commercial banks
                             after the introduction of capital adequacy norms.
      Reason (R) : Development banks in India have not adhered to their basic objectives.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) both are correct, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect
.
64. Match the following items of List-I with List-II :
                          List – I                                                             List – II
(a) Brettonwoods conference                                                    (i) 1947
(b) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs                              (ii) 1964
(c) ACCRA conference                                                           (iii) 1944
(d) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development       (iv) 2008
Codes :
       (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (d) (a) (c)
(B) (b) (d) (c) (a)
(C) (b) (c) (d) (a)
(D) (c) (a) (b) (d)

65. The forces that lend momentum to the process of globalization have been identified
       by Michael Porter include the following :
(i) Fluid global capital market.
(ii) Technological restructuring.
(iii) Decreasing religious command.
(iv) Ethnic decontrol.
(v) New-global competitors.
(vi) End of the ‘cold war’ in 1990s.
Codes :
(A) (vi), (v), (iv) and (iii)
(B) (vi), (iii), (ii) and (i)
(C) (vi), (v), (ii) and (i)
(D) (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)

66. Statement (I) : Green Box subsidies include amount spent on Government services such
                             as research, disease control, infrastructure and food security.
     Statement (II) : Blue Box subsidies are certain direct payments made to farmers, to limit production,
                             and are certain government assistance programmes to encourage agriculture
                             and rural development.
Codes :
(A) Statement (I) is correct, but (II) is not correct.
(B) Statement (II) is correct, but (I) is not correct.
(C) Both statement (I) and (II) are correct.
(D) Both statement (I) and (II) are incorrect.

67. Assertion (A) : The major economic powers have succeeded in creating a new international
      regime where the profits and the dominance of their transnational corporations will be the
      decisive consideration.
      Reason (R) : This regime will legitimise the process of progressive erosion of the sovereign
      economic space of the third-world countries.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct.

68. Assertion (A) : The ‘Balance of Payments’ presents a classified record of all receipts on
      account of   goods exported, services rendered and capital received by ‘residents’ and
      payments made by them on account of goods imported and services received from capital
      transferred to ‘non-residents’ or ‘foreigners”.
     Reason (R) : The ‘Balance of Payments’ of a country is a systematic record of all economic
                    transactions between the ‘residents’ of a country and the rest of the world.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
(C) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

69. Which among the following is not rightly explained ?
(i) M1 = Currency with the public + demand deposits of the public.
(ii) M2 = M1 + Post Office Savings Deposits.
(iii) M3 = M1 + Time Deposits of the public with Banks.
(iv) M4 = M3 + Total Post Office Deposits.
(v) M1 = Narrow money (vi) M3 = Broad money
(A) Only (v) and (vi)
(B) Only (i) and (iii)
(C) Only (vi)
(D) None of the above

70. Which of the followings are not effect of dumping on importing country ?
(i) Domestic industry might be affected adversely by a decline in sales and profits.
(ii) If dumping is continued for a longer period, survival of the domestic industry may be threatened.
(iii) Dumping may create BOP problems for the country.
(iv) It finds market for its surplus production.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (iv)

71. Donation to National Children’s Fund will come in which of the following deduction
      under Sec. 80G of Income Tax Act, 1961.
(A) 100 percent deduction without any qualifying limit.
(B) 50 percent deduction without any qualifying limit.
(C) 100 percent deduction subject to qualifying limit.
(D) 50 percent deduction subject to qualifying limit.

72. If the taxable income of a domestic company for the Assessment Year 2011-12 is `
      9,00,000, its tax liability will be
(A) ` 2,76,800 (B) ` 2,78,100 (C) ` 3,70,800 (D) ` 3,70,880

73. Unabsorbed depreciation which could not be setoff in the same assessment year,
      can be carried forward upto
(A) 4 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 10 years
(D) Indefinite period

74. If the book profits of a partnership firm is ` 1,10,000, the remuneration
     admissible to working partners under Sec.40(b) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is
(A) ` 1,10,000
(B) ` 1,50,000
(C) ` 99,000
(D) None of the above

75. Which of the following expenses is inadmissible while computing income from other sources ?
(A) Interest paid on amounts borrowed to meet tax liabilities.
(B) Collection charges paid to the banker or any other person to collect interest/dividend.
(C) Interest on loan taken to invest in securities.
(D) Depreciation on let-out machinery and plant.

Thursday 14 November 2013

UGC NET JUNE 2013 SOLVED COMMERCE PAPER II

                                    UGC NET JUNE 2013 SOLVED  COMMERCE PAPER II
                                                                            
1. Direct supervision over depositories and mutual funds is undertaken by
(A) NBFCs
(B) RBI
(C) SEBI
(D) All of the above

2. In the call/notice money market, which of the following participants is allowed to trade ?
(A) All Banks, Primary Dealers and Mutual Funds
(B) All Corporates
(C) Only Commercial Banks
(D) All of the above

3. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the correct answer :
                          List – I                                                                                   List – II
(i) Private ownership and Free Enterprise.                                               (a) Secondary Market
(ii) Government ownership and Central Authority                                   . (b) Capitalism
(iii) The market for the sale and purchase of previously issued securities.   (c) Primary Market
(iv) The market for new longterm capital.                                                 (d) Socialism
Codes :
        (i)   (ii)  (iii)  (iv)
(A)  (b)  (d)  (a)  (c)
(B)  (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)
(C)  (b)  (d)  (c)  (a)
(D)  (a)  (c ) (b)  (d)

4. The apex consumer court in India is referred to as
(A) The Consumer Education and Research Centre.
(B) The Consumer Unity and Trust Society.
(C) National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.
(D) None of the above

5. Who is Chairman of 13th Finance Commission ?
(A) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(B) Mr. Vimal Jalan
(C) Dr.Vijay C. Kelkar
(D) None of the above

6. Insurance expenses paid to bring an equipment from the place of  purchase to the place
   of installation is a type of
(A) Revenue expenditure
(B) Capital expenditure
(C) Deferred revenue expenditure
(D) Operating expense

7. ABC Ltd was incorporated with an authorised Share Capital of ` 1,00,000 equity shares of ` 10 each. The Board of Directors of the company decided to allot 10,000 shares credited as fully paid to the promoters of the company for their services. Which account should be debited in the books of ABC Ltd. ?
(A) Promoters’ Account
(B) Services Account
(C) Goodwill Account
(D) Share Capital Account

8. In a reconstruction scheme, the reduction of capital may take the form of
(A) Reducing the liability of the shareholders in respect of any unpaid amount on the shares held by them.
(B) Paying-off any paid-up share capital which is in excess of its requirement.
(C) Cancelling any paid-up share capital which is lost or unrepresented by available assets.
(D) All of the above.

9. While determining the normal rate of return for the valuation of shares in Market Value Method,
    which of  the following should be taken into consideration ?
(A) The degree of risk involved.
(B) The current rate of interest ongilt-edged securities.
(C) Weighted average cost of capital.
(D) All of the above.

10. Master budget is a
(A) Functional Budget
(B) Operating Budget
(C) Summary Budget
(D) Financial Budget

11. Assertion (A) : Want-satisfying power of a commodity is called its utility.
Reason (R) : Utility may not have the characteristic of morality.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct.

12. Match the items of List-I with those in List-II and select the correct code for the answer :
                List – I                                                 List – II
(a) Contraction of Demand                     (i) Non-Price change effect
(b) Decrease in Demand                        (ii) Demand curve remains the same
(c) Increase in Demand                          (iii) Price change effect
(d) Expansion of Demand                       (iv) Shifts the Demand curve
Codes :
        (a)  (b) (c)  (d)
(A)  (iii)  (i)  (iv)  (ii)
(B)  (iv)  (iii ) (ii)  (i)
(C)  (i)   (ii)  (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii)   (iv ) (i) (iii)

13. Assertion (A) : As the proportion of one variable factor in a combination with fixed factor is
                             increased,  after a point the marginal   product of the factor will diminish.
      Reason (R) : Beyond the level of optimum combination of inputs leads to this.
Codes :
(A) (R) is appropriate reason of (A).
(B) (R) is not appropriate reason of (A).
(C) (A) and (R) are not related with each other.
(D) (A) is independent of (R).

14. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the correct answer.
              List – I                                                           List – II
(a) Indifference Curve                                 (i) Slopes downward to the right
(b) Demand Curve                                     (ii) P=AR=MR=d
(c) Perfect Competition                              (iii) Oligopoly
(d) Price Leadership                                  (iv) Convex to the origin
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

15. Price, Marginal Revenue and Elasticity are related to each other. When e = 1, then :
(A) MR > 0
(B) MR < 0
(C) MR = 0
(D) MR = 1

16. Consider the following statistical tests :
(i) ‘F’ test
(ii) ‘t’ test
(iii) ‘z’ test
(iv) ‘Chi-square’ test
Which of these are parametric tests ?
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

17. The difference between sample statistic and its corresponding population parameter is
(A) Sampling error
(B) Measurement error
(C) Coverage error
(D) Non-response error

18. Match the items in List-I with items in List-II.
               List – I                                                                                 List – II
(i) Level of significance                                                 (a) Sample mean is equal to population mean
(ii) Standard deviation of sampling distribution               (b) Parameters
(iii) Numerical value that describes the characteristi
     cs of the population                                                  (c) Type-I error
(iv) Normallydistributed population                                (d) Standard error
Codes :
         (i)  (ii)  (iii)  (iv)
(A)  (d)  (c)  (a)  (b)
(B)  (c)  (d)  (b)  (a)
(C)  (c)  (b)  (d)  (a)
(D)  (d)  (b)  (c)  (a)

19. Kendall’s co-efficient of concordance is used to
(A) Test the difference among two or more sets of data.
(B) Test the relationship between variables.
(C) Test the variations in the given data.
(D) Test the randomness of samples

20. Which of the following softwares are used for data processing ?
(i) EXCEL
(ii) ACCESS
(iii) SPSS
(iv) STAR
(v) PASW
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

21. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the correct answer.
         List – I                                         List – II
(i) Grapevine                                 (a) Task group
(ii) Formal group                           (b) Field force theory
(iii) Informal group                         (c) Gossip
 (iv) Kurt Lewin                             (d) National group
Codes :
        (i)   (ii)  (iii)  (iv)
(A)  (c)  (a)  (d)  (b)
(B)  (d)  (c)  (b)  (a)
(C)  (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)
(D)  (b)  (a)  (d)  (c)

22. Who has suggested that achievement motivation among individuals and nations can be developed
      through training courses ?
(A) MeClelland
(B) Alderfer
(C) Maslow
(D) Herzberg

23. Assertion (A) : When span of control is wide co-ordination and control becomes difficult.
      Reason (R) : In a narrow span, levels of authority reduces.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

24. The general pattern of behaviour, shared belief and values that members have in common is known as
(A) Organisation climate
(B) Organisation culture
(C) Organisation effectiveness
(D) Organisation matrix

25. Which of the following is not a principle of management according to Henri Fayol ?
(A) Subordination of individual interest over the organisational interest
(B) Esprit de crops.
(C) Unity of Managers
(D) Unity of Direction

26. Which of the following concepts is based on development, design and implementation of
       marketing   programmes, processes and activities that recognise their breadth and interdependence ?
(A) Product concept
(B) Sales concept
(C) Societal marketing concept
(D) Holistic marketing concept

27. The concept of marketing-mix, consisting of the 4 P’s of marketing, was developed by
(A) E. Jerome McCarthy
(B) Peter F. Drucker
(C) Philip Kotler
(D) William J. Stonton

28. The selling concept is most likely to be used by firms which sell
(A) Convenience goods
(B) Shopping goods
(C) Speciality goods
(D) Unsought goods

29. Match the items of List-I with those of List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
          List – I                                                       List – II
(a) Everitt M. Rogers                             (i) Service Quality Model
(b) J.D. Power                                      (ii) Three types of marketing for services
(c) Parasuraman, Zeithaml and Berry     (iii) Quality rating of automobiles
(d) Gronroos                                        (iv) Diffusion of innovation
Codes :
       (a)  (b)  (c ) (d)
(A)  (iii)  (ii)  (i)  (iv)
(B)   (i)   (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C)  (ii)   (i)  (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv)  (iii)  (i)   (ii)

30. Consumer attitudes and beliefs about diet, health and nutrition are influenced by
(A) Economic environment
(B) Cultural environment
(C) Social environment
(D) Natural environment

31. Positive NPV in project appraised by a firm may not occur an account of
(A) Economics of scale
(B) Market reach
(C) Product differentiation
(D) Intangible benefits

32. In case the projects are divisible under capital rationing an appropriate project appraisal method is
(A) Net Present Value Method
(B) Profitability Index Method
(C) Internal Rate of Return Method
(D) Payback Period Method

33. Permanent working capital is generally financed through
(A) Long term Capital Funds
(B) Government Assistance
(C) Internal Financing
(D) Short term loans from Banks

34. The appropriate ratio for indicating liquidity crisis is
(A) Operating ratio
(B) Sales turnover ratio
(C) Current ratio
(D) Acid test ratio

35. Who proposed a model to apply economic order quantity concept of inventory
      management to  determine the optimum  cash holding in a firm ?
(A) Keith V. Smith
(B) Miller and Orr
(C) William J. Baumol
(D) J.M. Keynes

36. Which of the following is not included in the model of the systems approach to
      Human Resource Management ?
(A) Human Resource Planning
(B) Recruitment and Selection
(C) Performance appraisal
(D) Departmentation

37. It is generally easy to measure the performance of the
(A) Industrial Relations Manger
(B) Research and Development Manager
(C) Sales person
(D) All of the above

38. Which one of the following is not a monetory incentive to sales people ?
(A) Bonus
(B) Staff meeting
(C) Travelling allowance
(D) Both (B) and (C)

39. Statement (i) : Sound industrial relations are essential to achieve individual, team goals
      and organizational goals.
      Statement (ii) : Congenial labour management relations create an atmosphere of harmony
      and low rate of absenteeism.
(A) Statement (i) is true, but (ii) is false.
(B) Statement (ii) is true, but (i) is false.
(C) Both statements are true.
(D) Both statements are false.

40. Out of the following, which are the schemes of Social Security ?
(i) Provident Fund Scheme
(ii) Health Insurance Scheme
(iii) Job Guarantee Scheme
(iv) Maternity Benefit Scheme
(v) Merit Promotion Scheme
(vi) Compulsory and Voluntary Social Insurance Scheme
(vii) Child Insurance Scheme
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(B) (ii), (i), (v) and (vii)
(C) (iii), (v), (iv) and (vi)
(D) (iv), (vii), (iii) and (ii)

41. RBI ensures that banks operate within the set norms by conducting ______ inspections
      and _______   monitoring.
(A) on site, off site
(B) off site, on site
(C) on site, field
(D) field, on site 

42. Under Section 37 of the Banking (Regulation) Act, a moratorium order can be issued
       by the High Court for a maximum total period of
(A) One month
(B) Six months
(C) One year
(D) One and a half year

43. Bonds or debentures issued by Securitization company should bear interest not less than
(A) Bank Rate
(B) Prime Lending Rate
(C) 1.5% over the Bank Rate
(D) 1.5% over the Saving Rate

44. Section 131 of the Negotiable Instruments Act extends protection to the _______
(A) Collecting Banker
(B) Paying Banker
(C) Advising Banker
(D) Confirming Banker

45. When a customer, by a letter has advised the bank not to honour/pay a particular cheque, such letter is called ______
(A) Cancellation letter
(B) Garnishee letter
(C) Mandate
(D) None of the above

46. Flow of foreign loans and investments affect
(A) Trade balance
(B) Current Account balance
(C) Capital Account balance
(D) None of the above

47. Concessions mainly multinational in character come under the principle of
(A) Non-discrimination
(B) Reciprocity
(C) Market Access
(D) Fair Competition

48. From the following identify the one which is not a commercial counter trade ?
(A) Classical barter
(B) Counter purchase
(C) Pre-compensation
(D) Buy-back agreement

49. If the spot price is higher than the strike price in a call option, it is referred to as
(A) At-the-money
(B) In-the-money
(C) Out-of-the-money
(D) Premium

50. Identity the item which does not include under Current Account transaction.
(A) Services
(B) Non-monetary movement of gold
(C) Unilateral transfer
(D) Investment income