UGC NET Solved Paper I June2011

UGC NET Solved Paper I June2011

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on

(A) Primary Data only

(B) Secondary Data only

(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data

(D) None of the above

2. Newton gave three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as

(A) Descriptive Research

(B) Sample Survey

(C) Fundamental Research

(D) Applied Research

3. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and prepared a syllabus for a new course. The process may be termed as

(A) Seminar

(B) Workshop

(C) Conference

(D) Symposium

4. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

(A) Statement of Objectives

(B) Analysis of Data

(C) Selection of Research Tools

(D) Collection of Data

5. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand

(A) the chosen texts of his own

(B) political actions

(C) historical trends

(D) his enquiries

6. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of

(A) conclusions

(B) any corpus of evidence

(C) distinctiveness

(D) habitual interpretation

7. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from

(A) a body of techniques

(B) the common stock of knowledge

(C) the dominance of political historians

(D) cosmological beliefs

8. What is philistinism ?

(A) Reinforcement of prejudice

(B) Fabrication of reasons

(C) The hold of land-owning classes

(D) Belief that power and its exercise matter

9. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as   part of

(A) literary criticism

(B) history of science

(C) history of philosophy

(D) intellectual history

10. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as if they were held by a minority, is

(A) to have a licensed political class

(B) a political action

(C) a philosophy of literature

(D) the mirror-image of philistinism

11. Public communication tends to occur within a more

(A) complex structure

(B) political structure

(C) convenient structure

(D) formal structure

12. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred to as

(A) channelisation

(B) mediation

(C) encoding

(D) decoding

13. Effective communication needs a supportive

(A) economic environment

(B) political environment

(C) social environment

(D) multi-cultural environment

14. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is an individual’s

(A) personality  (B) expectation  (C) social status  (D) coding ability

15. When communicated, institutionalized stereotypes become

(A) myths  (B) reasons  (C) experiences  (D) convictions

16. In mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receiver’s

(A) competence  (B) pre-disposition  (C) receptivity  (D) ethnicity

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words NUMERATOR : DENOMINATOR and then       select the pair of words from the following which have a similar relationship :

(A) fraction : decimal  (B) divisor : quotient  (C) top : bottom  (D) dividend : divisor

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence

125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165

(A) 130  (B) 142  (C) 153  (D) 165

19. If HOBBY is coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then BOBBY is coded as

(A) BOBY  (B) COBY  (C) DOBY  (D) OOBY

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set : K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?

(A) 10/8  (B) 10/18  (C) 11/19  (D) 10/19

21. If A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so on, what do the following numbers stand for?

17, 19, 20, 9, 8

(A) Plane  (B) Moped  (C) Motor  (D) Tonga

22. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to increase, the ratio between the 
reduction in consumption and the original consumption is

(A) 1 : 3  (B) 1 : 4  (C) 1 : 5  (D) 1 : 6 

23. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 5 but not immediately followed by 3? 

5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6 5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5

(A) 4  (B) 5  (C) 7  (D) 3

24. If a rectangle were called a circle, a circle a point, a point a triangle and a triangle a square, the shape of a wheel is

(A) Rectangle  (B) Circle  (C) Point  (D) Triangle

25. Which one of the following methods is best suited for mapping the distribution of different crops as provided in the standard classification of crops in India?

(A) Pie diagram  (B) Chorochromatic technique  (C) Isopleth technique  (D) Dot method

26. Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data classification?

(A) Qualitative  (B) Normative  (C) Spatial  (D) Quantitative

27. Which one of the following is not a source of data ?

(A) Administrative records  (B) Population census  (C) GIS  (D) Sample survey

28. If the statement ‘some men are cruel’ is false, which of the following statements/statement are/is true ?

(i) All men are cruel.

(ii) No men are cruel.

(iii) Some men are not cruel.

(A) (i) and (iii)  (B) (i) and (ii)  (C) (ii) and (iii)  (D) (iii) only

29. The octal number system consists of the following symbols:

(A) 0 – 7  (B) 0 – 9  (C) 0 – 9, A – F  (D) None of the above

30. The binary equivalent of (–19)10 in signed magnitude system is

(A) 11101100  (B) 11101101  (C) 10010011  (D) None of these

31. DNS in internet technology stands for

(A) Dynamic Name System  (B) Domain Name System  (C) Distributed Name System (D) None of these

32. HTML stands for

(A) Hyper Text Markup Language

(B) Hyper Text Manipulation Language

(C) Hyper Text Managing Links

(D) Hyper Text Manipulating Links

33. Which of the following is type of LAN ?

(A) Ethernet  (B) Token Ring  (C) FDDI  (D) All of the above

34. Which of the following statements is true ?

(A) Smart cards do not require an operating system.

(B) Smart cards and PCs use some operating system.

(C) COS is smart card operating system.

(D) The communication between reader and card is in full duplex mode.

35. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated during the year

(A) 1986  (B) 1988  (C) 1990  (D) 1992

36. Identify the correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in the power sector in India :

(A) Thermal > nuclear > hydro > wind

(B) Thermal > hydro > nuclear > wind

(C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > wind

(D) Nuclear > hydro > wind > thermal

37. Chromium as a contaminant in drinking water in excess of permissible levels, causes

(A) Skeletal damage

(B) Gastrointestinal problem

(C) Dermal and nervous problems

(D) Liver/Kidney problems

38. The main precursors of winter smog are

(A) N2O and hydrocarbons

(B) NOx and hydrocarbons

(C) SO2 and hydrocarbons

(D) SO2 and ozone

39. Flash floods are caused when

(A) the atmosphere is convectively unstable and there is considerable vertical windshear

(B) the atmosphere is stable

(C) the atmosphere is convectively unstable with no vertical windshear

(D) winds are catabatic

40. In mega cities of India, the dominant source of air pollution is

(A) transport sector  (B) thermal power  (C) municipal waste  (D) commercial sector

41. The first Open University in India was set up in the State of

(A) Andhra Pradesh  (B) Delhi  (C) Himachal Pradesh  (D) Tamil Nadu

42. Most of the Universities in India are funded by

(A) the Central Government

(B) the State Governments

(C) the University Grants Commission

(D) Private bodies and Individuals

43. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management education in India?

(A) NCTE  (B) MCI  (C) AICTE  (D) CSIR

44. Consider the following statements : Identify the statement which implies natural justice.

(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.

(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.

(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen

(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.

45. The President of India is

(A) the Head of State

(B) the Head of Government

(C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government

(D) None of the above

46. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India?

(A) Chief Election Commissioner

(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

(D) Governor of a State

Questions 47 to 49 are based upon the following diagram in which there are three interlocking circles A, P and S where A stands for Artists, circle P for Professors and circle S for Sportspersons. Different regions in the figure are lettered from a to f :

47. The region which represents artists who are neither sportsmen nor professors.

(A) d  (B) e  (C) b  (D) g

48. The region which represents professors, who are both artists and sportspersons.

(A) a  (B) c  (C) d  (D) g

49. The region which represents professors, who are also sportspersons, but not artists.

(A) e  (B) f  (C) c  (D) g

Questions 50 to 52 are based on the following data :
Measurements of some variable X were made at an interval of 1 minute from 10 A.M. to 10:20 A.M. 
The data, thus, obtained is as follows :

X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68 63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64

50. The value of X, which is exceeded 10% of the time in the duration of measurement, is

 (A) 69  (B) 68  (C) 67  (D) 66

51. The value of X, which is exceeded 90% of the time in the duration of measurement, is

(A) 63  (B) 62  (C) 61  (D) 60

52. The value of X, which is exceeded 50% of the time in the duration of measurement, is

(A) 66  (B) 65  (C) 64  (D) 63

53. For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should

(A) Allow students to do what they like.

(B) Deal with the students strictly.

(C) Give the students some problem to solve.

(D) Deal with them politely and firmly.

54. An effective teaching aid is one which

(A) is colourful and good looking

(B) activates all faculties

(C) is visible to all students

(D) easy to prepare and use

55. Those teachers are popular among students who

(A) develop intimacy with them

(B) help them solve their problems

(C) award good grades

(D) take classes on extra tuition fee

56. The essence of an effective classroom environment is

(A) a variety of teaching aids

(B) lively student-teacher interaction

(C) pin-drop silence

(D) strict discipline

57. On the first day of his class, if a teacher is asked by the students to introduce himself, he should

(A) ask them to meet after the class

(B) tell them about himself in brief

(C) ignore the demand and start teaching

(D) scold the student for this unwanted demand

58. Moral values can be effectively inculcated among the students when the teacher

(A) frequently talks about values

(B) himself practices them

(C) tells stories of great persons

(D) talks of Gods and Goddesses

59. The essential qualities of a researcher are

(A) spirit of free enquiry

(B) reliance on observation and evidence

(C) systematization or theorizing of knowledge

(D) all the above

60. Research is conducted to

I. Generate new knowledge

II. Not to develop a theory

III. Obtain research degree

IV. Reinterpret existing knowledge

Which of the above are correct?

(A) I, III & II  (B) III, II & IV  (C) II, I & III  (D) I, III & IV

UGC NET Solved Paper I Dec2011

UGC NET Solved Paper I Dec2011

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. Photo bleeding means

(A) Photo cropping

(B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting
(D) Photo colour adjustment

2. While designing communication strategy feed-forward studies are conducted by
(A) Audience
(B) Communicator
(C) Satellite
(D) Media

3. In which language the newspapers have highest circulation ?
(A) English (B) Hindi (C) Bengali  (D) Tamil

4. Aspect ratio of TV Screen is
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 2 : 3  (D) 2 : 4

5. Communication with oneself is known as
(A) Organisational Communication
(B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication

(D) Intrapersonal Communication

6. The term ‘SITE’ stands for
(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment

(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment

(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education

7. What is the number that comes next in the sequence ?
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ___
(A) 76 (B) 74 (C) 75 (D) 50

8. Find the next letter for the series MPSV..…
(A) X (B) Y (C) Z (D) A

9. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and ‘469’ means ‘happy and sad’ in a given code, then which of the following represents ‘and’ in that code ?
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 4

10. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’, ‘house’, ‘book’, and ‘student’ :
(A) Definite descriptions
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases

(D) Common names

11. Assertion (A) : The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
         Reason (R) : Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanationof (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

12. The relation ‘is a sister of ’ is
(A) non-symmetrical

(B) symmetrical

(C) asymmetrical
(D) transitive

13. If the proposition “Vegetarians are not meat eaters” is false, then which of the following inferences is
correct ? Choose from the codes given below :
1. “Some vegetarians are meat eaters” is true.
2. “All vegetarians are meat eaters” is doubtful.
3. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is true.
4. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is doubtful.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

14. Determine the nature of the following definition :
‘Poor’ means having an annual income of ` 10,000.
(A) persuasive (B) precising (C) lexical (D) stipulative

15. Which one of the following is not an argument ?

(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.

(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose.
(D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town.

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.

(B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.

(C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.

17. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise may
(A) support and entail a conclusion
(B) not support but entail a conclusion
(C) neither support nor entail a conclusion

(D) support a conclusion without entailing it

18. Which of the following statements are true ? Choose from the codes given below.
1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid.
2. A sound argument may be invalid.
3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.
4. A statement may be true or false.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 4 alone (D) 3 and 4

19. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square increases by
(A) 60 % (B) 40 % (C) 196 % (D) 96 %

20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on independently. The number of ways
in which hall can be illuminated is
(A) 102 (B) 1023 (C) 210 (D) 10 !

21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2 ?
(A) 100 (B) 110 (C) 120 (D) 180

22. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60
students. The number of newspapers required is
(A) at least 30 (B) at most 20 (C) exactly 25 (D) exactly 5

The total CO2 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart given below, the percentage
contribution to CO2 emissions from various sectors is indicated.

23. What is the absolute CO2 emission from domestic sector ?
(A) 1.5 mmt (B) 2.5 mmt (C) 1.75 mmt (D) 0.75 mmt

24. What is the absolute CO2 emission for combined thermal power and transport sectors ?
(A) 3.25 mmt (B) 1.5 mmt (C) 2.5 mmt (D) 4 mmt

25. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones ?
(A) Windows Vista

(B) Android

(C) Windows XP
(D) All of the above

26. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers is smallest of all ?
(A) (1111)2 (B) (1111)8 (C) (1111)10 (D) (1111)16

27. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following ?
(A) Oracle (B) Compiler (C) Mat lab (D) Assembler

28. HTML is used to create
(A) machine language program
(B) high level program

(C) web page

(D) web server

29. The term DNS stands for

(A) Domain Name System

(B) Defense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software
(D) Dependent Name Server

30. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet.
Find the correct statement out of the following :
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address.

(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address.

(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.

31. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans ?

(A) Carbon monoxide

(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide
(D) Aerosols

32. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector ?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen

(B) Chlorofluorocarbons

(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons

33. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India ?
(A) Solar energy

(B) Wind energy

(C) Ocean thermal energy
(D) Tidal energy

34. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil ?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants
(D) Hydropower plants

35. Which of the following is not a natural hazard ?
(A) Earthquake
(B) Tsunami
(C) Flash floods

(D) Nuclear accident

36. Ecological footprint represents

(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement

(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover

37. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values
(B) the social values
(C) the political values
(D) the economic values

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10 (B) 07 (C) 08 (D) 09

39. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India

(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India

(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India

40. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
               List – I                                                                                     List – II
(Commissions and Committees)                                                                (Year)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission                                          (i) 2005
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I                                                           (ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee                                                                (iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission                                   (iv) 1953
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

41. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India

(C) The Election Commission of India

(D) Election Department of the State Governments

42. The members of Gram Sabha are
(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas

(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat

43. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is possible ?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.
(B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation.
(D) Formative evaluation.

44. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he visits the teacher’s house for the
purpose, the teacher should
(A) contact the student’s parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale.

45. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of the class by making mischief,
what will be your role as a teacher ?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.

46. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid ?
(A) Blackboard (B) Diorama (C) Epidiascope (D) Globe

47. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask
(A) meaningful questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time

48. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher ?
(A) He should be a learned person.
(B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience.
(D) He should be an expert in his subject.

49. A hypothesis is a
(A) law (B) canon (C) postulate (D) supposition

50. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of nationalised bank in India, which one of the following would you follow ?
(A) Area Sampling

(B) Multi-stage Sampling

(C) Sequential Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling

51. Controlled group condition is applied in
(A) Survey Research
(B) Historical Research

(C) Experimental Research

(D) Descriptive Research

52. Workshops are meant for
(A) giving lectures
(B) multiple target groups
(C) showcase new theories
(D) hands on training/experience

53. Which one of the following is a research tool ?
(A) Graph (B) Illustration (C) Questionnaire (D) Diagram

54. Research is not considered ethical if it
(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55 to 60) :

The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the Beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being. The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible.

55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on
(A) Consumerism (B) Materialism  (C) Spiritual devaluation (D) Inordinate development

56. The ‘de facto’ values in the passage means
(A) What is (B) What ought to be (C) What can be (D) Where it is

57. According to the passage, the ‘first reality’ constitutes
(A) Economic prosperity (B) Political development (C) Sacred perception of life (D) Enlightened rationalism

58. Encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the human implies
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material
(C) Man is superior to nature
(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature

59. The contents of the passage are
(A) Descriptive (B) Prescriptive (C) Axiomatic (D) Optional

60. The passage indicates that science has proved that
(A) universe is material (B) matter is energy (C) nature has abundance (D) humans are irresponsible

ugc paper 1 solved

UGC NET Solved Paper I June2012 

 1. Video-Conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication :
(A) Visual one way
(B) Audio-Visual one way
(C) Audio-Visual two way
(D) Visual two way

 2. MC National University of Journalism and Communication is located at
(A) Lucknow (B) Bhopal  (C) Chennai (D) Mumbai

 3. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for broadcasting was named in the year
(A) 1926 (B) 1936 (C) 1946 (D) 1956

 4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed ?
(A) NTCS (B) PAL (C) NTSE (D) SECAM

  5. The term ‘DAVP’ stands for
(A) Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity
(B) Division of Audio-Visual Publicity
(C) Department of Audio-Visual Publicity
(D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity

 
6. The term “TRP” is associated with TV shows stands for
(A) Total Rating Points
(B) Time Rating Points
(C) Thematic Rating Points
(D) Television Rating Points

7. Which is the number that comes next in the following sequence ?
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, _____
(A) 60 (B) 64 (C) 72 (D) 70

8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP ………
(A) N (B) M (C) O (D) L

9. Given that in a code language,
‘645’ means ‘day is warm’; ‘42’ means ‘warm spring’ and ‘634’ means ‘spring is sunny’;
which digit represents ‘sunny’ ?
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5

10. The basis of the following classification is :
‘first President of India’ ‘author of Godan’ ‘books in my library’, ‘blue things’ and ‘students who work hard’
(A) Common names
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases
(D) Indefinite description

11. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than itself’ the relation ‘is larger than’ is
(A) antisymmetric
(B) asymmetrical
(C) intransitive
(D) irreflexive

12. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than ever before, and more crimes being committed than ever before.
Reason (R) : Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.
Choose the correct answer from below :
(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

13. If the proposition “All men are not mortal” is true then which of the following inferences is correct ? Choose from the code given below :
1. “All men are mortal” is true.
2. “Some men are mortal” is false.
3. “No men are mortal” is doubtful.
4. “All men are mortal” is false.
Code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

 14. Determine the nature of the following
definition : “Abortion” means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.
(A) Lexical (B) Persuasive (C) Stipulative (D) Theoretical

15. Which one of the following is not an argument ?
(A) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.
(B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be eating at night.
(C) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.
(D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night.

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(C) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.

17. Reasoning by analogy leads to
(A) certainty
(B) definite conclusion
(C) predictive conjecture
(D) surety

18. Which of the following statements are false ? Choose from the code given below :
1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’.
Code :
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 2

19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F ?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a customer reduce the consumption so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter ?
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 30% (D) 33.33%

21. If Ram knows that y is an integer greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari knows that y is an integer greater than 5 and less than 10, then they may correctly conclude that
(A) y can be exactly determined
(B) y may be either of two values
(C) y may be any of three values
(D) there is no value of y satisfying these conditions

22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. The first one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9 AM. When will the reservoir be filled ?
(A) 11 AM (B) 12 Noon (C) 1 PM (D) 1:30 PM

The total electricity generation in a country is 97 GW. The contribution of various energy sources is indicated in percentage terms in the Pie Chart given below ;

23. What is the contribution of wind and solar power in absolute terms in the electricity generation ?
(A) 6.79 GW (B) 19.4 GW (C) 9.7 GW (D) 29.1 GW

24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms in the electricity generation ?
(A) 29.1 GW (B) 26.19 GW (C) 67.9 GW (D) 97 GW

25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the
(A) Phone lines
(B) LAN
(C) Internet
(D) a Server

26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change

27. Which of the following is not a programming language ?
(A) Pascal
(B) Microsoft Office
(C) Java
(D) C++

28. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is equal to
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 10

29. Internet explorer is a type of
(A) Operating System
(B) Compiler
(C) Browser
(D) IP address

30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which
(A) One automatically gets one’s mail everyday
(B) One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail
(C) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email
(D) One does not need any telephone lines

31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant
(A) Sulphur di-oxide
(B) Ozone
(C) PAN
(D) Nitrous oxide

32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons ?
(A) Thermal power plants
(B) Automobiles
(C) Refrigeration and Airconditioning
(D) Fertilizers

33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource ?
(A) Clean air (B) Fertile soil (C) Fresh water (D) Salt

34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in water ?
(A) Total dissolved solids
(B) Coliform count
(C) Dissolved oxygen
(D) Density

35. S and P waves are associated with
(A) floods
(B) wind energy
(C) earthquakes
(D) tidal energy

36. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I                                                        List – II
(i) Ozone hole                                            (a) Tsunami
(ii) Greenhouse effect                                 (b) UV radiations
(iii) Natural hazards                                    (c) Methane
(iv) Sustainable development                      (d) Eco-centrism
Codes :
      (i)  (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (b) (c) (a)

37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at
(A) Dharmshala
(B) Shimla
(C) Solan
(D) Chandigarh

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education.
(A) 04
(B) 05
(C) 06
(D) 08

39. Which of the following rights was considered
the “Heart and Soul” of  the Indian Constitution by  Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ?
(A) Freedom of Speech
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

40. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation
(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe

41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include
1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper.
3. Respect for the Government.
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 2

42. The President of India takes oath
(A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
(C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.
(D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country.

43. If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class ?
(A) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer.
(B) Take care of him sympathetically in the class- room.
(C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do anything.
(D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him.

44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test ?
(A) Reliability (B) Objectivity (C) Ambiguity (D) Validity

45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid ?
(A) Overhead projector
(B) Blackboard
(C) Epidiascope
(D) Slide projector

46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on the blackboard ?
(A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible.
(B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.
(C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them.
(D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.

47. A teacher can be successful if he/she
(A) helps students in becoming better citizens
(B) imparts subject knowledge to students
(C) prepares students to pass the examination
(D) presents the subject matter in a well organized manner

48. Dynamic approach to teaching means
(A) Teaching should be forceful and effective
(B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
(C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
(D) The students should be required to learn through activities

49. The research that aims at immediate application is
(A) Action Research
(B) Empirical Research
(C) Conceptual Research
(D) Fundamental Research

50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work which one of the following expressions is used ?
(A) ibid (B) et.al (C) op.cit : (D) loc.cit.

51. Nine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a reference drawn from
(A) Vertical study
(B) Cross-sectional study
(C) Time series study
(D) Experimental study

52. Conferences are meant for
(A) Multiple target groups
(B) Group discussions
(C) Show-casing new Research
(D) All the above

53. Ex Post Facto research means
(A) The research is carried out after the incident
(B) The research is carried out prior to the incident
(C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident.
(D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident.

54. Research ethics do not include
(A) Honesty (B) Subjectivity (C) Integrity (D) Objectivity


Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60 :

James Madison said, “A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves with power that knowledge gives.” In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was a convenient smokescreen to deny members of the public access to information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, “I would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil

servants, should see the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government, but as an instrument for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government functioning for the good of our People.” He further said, “This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as we gain experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant reviews.”

The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit because much of the work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny, Government of India has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about ` 700 crores which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public authorities. The transformation from non-transparency to transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of State.

55. A person gets power

(A) by acquiring knowledge
(B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(C) through openings
(D) by denying public information

56. Right to Information is a major step forward to
(A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process
(B) to make the people aware of the Act
(C) to gain knowledge of administration
(D) to make the people Government friendly

57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill
(A) to provide power to the civil servants
(B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government
(C) a draconian law against the officials
(D) to check the harassment of the people

58. The Commission made the Bill effective by
(A) extending power to the executive authorities
(B) combining the executive and legislative power
(C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit
(D) educating the people before its implementation

59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.
(B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.
(C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government
(D) All the above

60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State.
These three organs are
(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive
(C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission
(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

 

UGC NET Education Solved Paper -III June2012...

UGC NET Education Solved Paper -II June2012...

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