UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED ENGLISH PAPER III

                 LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAL
                         UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED ENGLISH PAPER III
 01. Where Sir Thomas Wyatt adapted Petrarch and Petrarchanism to
        English sounds and metres, Survey’s verse tends to look back beyond
        Petrarch to the
    (A) French verse
    (B) Italian verse
    (C) Spanish verse
    (D) Latin verse
02. Here are some characteristics of Morality Plays :
    1. They are dramatized allegories of the life of man.
    2. They depict man’s temptation and sinning, his quest for
        salvation and his confrontation with Death.
    3. Though the hero represents Mankind, the other characters
        are by no means personifications, of virtues,
        vices and death.
    4. A character known as the Vice often plays the role of the hero,
        a predecessor of the Villainhero in Elizabethan drama.
    Find the correct combination according to the code :
    (A) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Only 1 and 3 are correct.
    (C) Only 1 and 4 are correct.
    (D) Only 2 and 3 are correct.
03. In Spenser’s Re Faerie Queene there are the allegorized moral and
    religious virtues with their counterparts in the vices. Identify the
    correctly matched set :
    (A) Una – Truth
          Guyon – Temperance
          Duessa – Deceit
          Orgoglio – Pride
    (B) Una – Pride
          Guyon – Deceit
          Duessa – Temperance
          Orgoglio – Truth
    (C) Una – Deceit
          Guyon – Pride
          Duessa – Temperance
          Orgoglio – Truth
    (D) Una – Temperance
          Guyon – Truth
          Duessa – Pride
          Orgoglio – Deceit
04. “Fop at the toilet, flatt’rer at the board
        Now trips a lady, a now struts a lord.”
    The above lines are quoted from
    (A) McFlecknoc
    (B) The Rape of the Lock
    (C) Epistle to Dr. Arbuthnot
    (D) Absalom and Achitrphel
05. Which of the following arrangements is in the correct chronological sequence ?
    (A) Every Man in His Humour The Shoemaker’s Holiday
          Antonio’s Revenge The Changeling
    (B) The Shoemaker’s Holiday Every Man in his Humour
          The Changeling Antonia’s Revenge
    (C) The Changeling Antonio’s Revenge Every Man in His Humour
          The Shoemaker’s Holiday
    (D) Antonio’s Revenge Every Man in His Humour The Changeling
          The Shoemaker’s Holiday
06. Though Coleridge refers to “Motivehunting of a motiveless malignity”, the
      “human villain” Iago is far from “motiveless”. His motives are
    I. He has been disappointed of military promotion.
    II. He suspects Othello of cuckolding him
    III. He has been in love with Desdemona
    IV. He wants to become Othello.
    Find the most appropriate combination according to the code :
    (A) I and II are correct
    (B) I and III are correct
    (C) I and IV are correct
    (D) II and IV are correct
07. In ‘The Prologue’ to Dr. Faustus, the chorus proposes that the theme
      should be –
    I. “cursed necromancy”
    II. “audacious deeds”
    III. “dalliance of love”
    IV. “self-conceit”
    The correct combination according to the code is
    (A) I and II are correct
    (B) II and III are correct
    (C) I and IV are correct
    (D) III and IV are correct
08. The centre of his plays is a proud character on Marlowe’s model, with a
      bold licence in speech and action, full of elaborate metaphors, phrase tumbling
      after phrase, as he asserts himself in the French Court. Dryden unjustly described
      his style as “a dwarfish thought, dressed up in gigantic words”. Who is this
      Jacobean playwright ?
    (A) John Fletcher
    (B) John Webster
    (C) George Chapman
    (D) John Marston
09. In Paradise Lost BK IX Milton writes that Adam was overcome with
      “______” and so ate the forbidden fruit against his “better knowledge”.
    (A) “female charm”
    (B) “exceeding love”
    (C) “faithful love”
    (D) “taste so divine”
10. In which poem of Donne’s is the lover’s face reflected in the eyes of
      his beloved ?
    (A) “The Good Morrow”
    (B) “The Canonization”
    (C) “The Apparition”
    (D) “A Valediction : Forbidding Mourning”
11. Match List – I with List – II according to the code given below :
                List – I                     List – II
            (Dramatists)                  (Plays)
    i. Thomas Otway          1. The Provok’d Husband
    ii. William Wycherley     2. The Recruiting Officer
    iii. Colley Cibber           3. The Country Wife
    iv. George Farquhar      4. The Orphan, or the unhappy
                                             marriage
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  4  3  1  2
    (B)  3  2  1  2
    (C)  4  2  3  1
    (D)  3  1  2  4
12. “Thou wast no born for death immortal Bird.”
    In what sense is the Bird “immortal” as compared to mortal man ?
    I. Here man as an individual is unfairly compared to a bird as a
       species.
    II. The word “Bird” stands for the nightingale’s song.
    III. When considered as a species man is equally “immortal” as
          the “Bird”.
    IV. The “Bird” is “Immortal” because songs of birds have
          given pleasure to man through the ages.
    Find the correct combination according to the code :
    (A) Only I and III are correct
    (B) Only IV is incorrect
    (C) Only II and IV are correct
    (D) Only I and IV are incorrect
13. Coleridge’s “The Rime of the Ancient Mariner” is a poem in
       _________
    (A) 8 parts             (B) 9 parts
    (C) 7 parts             (D) 6 parts
14. Scott is known for the creation of mad, irrational witch-like women
      characters. From the following list pick the odd one out :
    (A) Madge Wildfive
    (B) Meg Murdockson
    (C) Euphemia Deans
    (D) Meg Merrilees
15. Joseph Addison called him “The Miracle of the present age” and
      Alexander Pope wrote the epitaph for the monument erected in his
      memory. Who is he ?
    (A) John Locke
    (B) Isaac Newton
    (C) Ashley Cooper
    (D) Christopher Wren
16. The play was first performed in 1773. The author asked a friend “Did
       it make you laugh ?” and getting the answer “Exceedingly” said then that
       was all he required. He used for plot a reputed experience of his own as a
       schoolboy when he lost his way and asked to be directed to an inn but was
       shown the gateway to the local squire’s house. Which play is this ?
    (A) Sheridan’s The Rivals
    (B) Sheridan’s The School for Scandal
    (C) Goldsmith’s She Stoops to Conquer
    (D) Goldsmith’s The Good Natured Man
17. What is Johnson’s opinion regarding the “Violation” of the three unities in
      the plays of Shakespeare ?
    I. Shakespeare should have followed the Unities.
    II. Shakespeare followed the important Unity of Action
         satisfactorily.
    III. Shakespeare’s plays suffered because they did not follow the
          Unities.
    IV. Unity of Time and Place arise from false assumptions.
    The correct combination according to the code is
    (A) I and II are correct.
    (B) II and IV are correct.
    (C) III and IV are correct.
    (D) I and III are correct
18. The Tatler appeared thrice a week
    (A) On Tuesdays, Thursdays and Saturdays
    (B) On Sundays, Tuesdays and Thursdays
    (C) On Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays
    (D) On Wednesdays, Thursdays and Fridays
19. “No man is truly great, who is great only in his lifetime. The test of greatness is
       the page of history. Nothing can be said to be great that has a distinct limit, or
       that borders on something evidently greater than itself. Besides, what is shortlived
       and pampered into mere notoriety, is of a gross and vulgar quality in itself.”
       This passage describing the quality of greatness is taken from
    (A) “Of studies” by Francis Bacon
    (B) “The Indian Jugglers” by William Hazlitt
    (C) Preface to Shakespeare by Samuel Johnson
    (D) An Essay of Dramatic Poesy by John Dryden
20. In Blake’s “The Human Abstract”, the fragmented world of Experience
      is symbolized in the image of the
    (A) Caterpillar
    (B) Fly
    (C) Raven
    (D) Fruit of Deceit
21. Here are sentences labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :
    Assertion (A) : While referring to Charlotte Bronte’s claim that
                           she has excluded public interest from her novels Graham
                           Greene writes : ‘Public interest in her day was surely more
                           separate from public life… with us, however consciously
                           unconcerned we are, it obtrudes through the cracks of our
                           stories terribly persistent like grass through cement’.
    Reason (R) : The decade of the “thirties was bristling with
                        recurring economic and political crisis like the Great Depression,
                        Wall Street Crash, Unemployment, rise of Hitler
                        and Mussolini, series of murders, invasions and tensions;
                        writers could not remain unaffected.
    In the light of (A) and (R) which of the following is correct ?
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
22. Match the titles of the books with their authors :
              List – I                      List – II
    i. Psychology
       and Art Today          1. John Strachey
    ii. Revolution in
       Writing                     2. W.H. Auden
    iii. The Coming
        Struggle for
        Power                     3. C. Day Lewis
    iv. Arrow in the
        Blue                        4. Arthur Koestler
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  3  1  2  4
    (B)  4  2  3  1
    (C)  2  3  1  4
    (D)  1  2  4  3
23. George Meredith’s first novel was banned by Mudie’s Circulating
       Library for its supposed moral offence.
    Identify the novel :
    (A) The Egoist
    (B) Evan Harrington
    (C) Diana of the Crossways
    (D) The Ordeal of Richard Feverel
24. Match the titles of the following poems by Tennyson with their opening lines
    according to the code given below :
              List – I                      List – II
       (Titles of poems)        (Opening Lines)
    i. “Tithonus”            1. “‘Courage’ he said, and pointed
                                          towards the land.
                                         The mounting
                                         wave will roll us
                                         shoreward soon.”
    ii. “The Lotos-
         Eaters”                   2. “The woods decay,
                                            the woods decay and fall,
                                            The vapours weep
                                            their burthen to the ground.”
    iii. ‘Ulysses’                 3. “On either side the river lie
                                             Long fields of barley and of rye.”
    iv. ‘The Lady of
         Shalott’                   4. “It little profists that an idle king,
                                             By this still hearth,
                                             among these barren crags,
                                             Matched with an
                                             aged wife, I mete and dole
                                             Unequal laws unto a savage race.”
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  2  1  4  3
    (B)  3  2  1  4
    (C)  4  3  2  1
    (D)  2  4  3  1
25. Why are Elizabeth Barrett Browning’s Sonnets called “From
     Sonnets from the Portuguese” ?
    (A) She wrote the whole in Portugal
    (B) The sonnets were translated from the Portuguese.
    (C) She presented it under the guise of a translation from the
          Portuguese language.
    (D) The sonnets were narrated by a Portuguese.
26. Yeast’s “Sailing to Byzantium” is about
    (A) Irish Culture
    (B) The art and culture of Byzantium in general
    (C) Irish revolutionaries
    (D) Regenerating the art and culture that existed in Byzantium
27. “She had _______ lilies in her hand And the stars in her hair were
       ______.” (Rossetti’s “The Blessed Damozel”)
    (A) 7 and 3          (B) 3 and 7
    (C) 6 and 4          (D) 4 and 6
28. Which of the following arrangements is in the correct chronological
      sequence ?
    (A) Adam Bede – Wuthering Heights – North and South – Villette
    (B) Wuthering Heights – Villete – North and South – Adam Bede
    (C) Villettee – North and South – Wuthering Heights – Adam Bede
    (D) North and South – Wuthering Heights – Adam Bede – Villette
29. In which of the following novels by canrod do the Gould couple and
      Decoud appear as characters with Costaguana as the setting ?
    (A) Victory
    (B) Under Western Eyes
    (C) Nostromo
    (D) The Nigger of the Narcissus
30. Match the following plays with their authors according to the code given
      below :
                 List – I                     List – II
                 (Plays)                    (Authors)
    i. Heartbreak House          1. John Galsworthy
    ii. Loyalties                        2. Bertolt Brecht
    iii. In the Jungle of Cities     3. T.S. Eliot
    iv. The Family  Reunion      4. George Bernard Shaw
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  3  4  2  1
    (B)  1  2  3  4
    (C)  2  1  4  3
    (D)  4  1  2  3
31. In November 1910 in an exhibition organized by Roger Fry, the
      paintings of three painters were displayed. Identify the painters :
    (A) Duncan Grant, Vanessa Bell, Clive Bell
    (B) Cezanne, Van Gogh, Gauguin
    (C) Matisse, Picasso, Braque
    (D) Cezanne, Van Gogh, Matisse
32. Why did Phaedra, wife of Theseus, commit suicide by hanging herself ?
    (A) Theseus hated her
    (B) Her stepson, Hippolytus rejected her love
    (C) Hippolytus wanted to marry her
    (D) She was lonely and depressed
33. Identify the poet in whose verse rural Ulster figures prominently
    (A) Tony Harrison
    (B) Ted Hughes
    (C) Seamus Heaney
    (D) Louis MacNeice
34. Match the pairs of authors and their works according to the code given :
                    List – I                   List – II
                  (Authors)                 (Works)
    i. Alexander Dumas      1. Remembrance of Things Past
    ii. Honore de Balzac     2. Madame Bovary
    iii. Gustav Flaubert        3. The Human Comedy
    iv. Marcel Proust          4. The Count of Monte Christo
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  4  3  2  1
    (B)  1  2  3  4
    (C)  2  1  4  3
    (D)  3  4  1  2
35. Which of the following statements best applies to Anna Karenina ?
    1. Among her most prominent qualities are her passionate
        spirit and determination to live life on her own terms.
    2. She accepts the exile to which she has been condemned.
    3. She is a victim of Russian patriarchal system.
    4. Anna is deeply devoted to her family and children.
    (A) 1 and 2 are correct
    (B) 2 and 3 are correct
    (C) 1 and 3 are correct
    (D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
36. Match the pairs of authors and their works according to the code given :
                 List – I               List – II
               (Authors)            (Works)
    i. Vladimir Nabokov      1. Germinal
    ii. Italo Calvino              2. Foucault’s Pendulum
    iii. Umberto Eco            3. If on a Winter’s Night a Traveller
    iv. Emile Zola                 4. Lolita
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  3  1  4  2
    (B)  4  3  2  1
    (C)  1  2  3  4
    (D)  2  4  1  3
37. Which among the following plays by Aristophanes is an attack on
      ‘modern’ education and morals as imparted and taught by the radical
       intellectuals known as The Sophists ?
    (A) Clouds              (B) Wasps
    (C) Acharnians        (D) Knights
38. In which novel of Virginia Woolf does a painter in the act of painting
      actually figure as a character ?
    (A) The Voyage Out
    (B) The Waves
    (C) Jacob’s Room
    (D) To the Lighthouse
39. Religious controversies in England particularly during the 15th century
      led to the promotion of
    (A) English prose
    (B) The British Empire
    (C) Naval power
    (D) The Missionary Movement
40. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from the list below :
      In his fiction, Ian McEwan more than often suggests the _________ of love
    (A) Fragility               (B) Madness
    (C) Completeness      (D) Security
41. Match List – I with List – II according to the code given below :
                List – I                    List – II
            (Dramatists)                (Plays)
    i. Arnold Wesker           1. Jumpers
    ii. Harold Pinter             2. What the Butler Saw
    iii. Joe Orton                  3. The Room
    iv. Tom Stoppard           4. Roots
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  3  2  4  1
    (B)  1  2  4  3
    (C)  4  3  2  1
    (D)  4  3  1  2
42. Modern English emerged from the
    (A) South Midland dialect
    (B) East Midland dialect
    (C) French language
    (D) Northumbrian dialect
43. Most culinary terms in English are derived from
    (A) Exotic cooking
    (B) French cooking
    (C) Native sources
    (D) Arabic cooking
44. “Blended learning” is a mode of instruction/learning in which
    (A) the learner’s mother tongue and the target language are blended
    (B) learning is accessed through the mother tongue
    (C) a variety of instructional modes are integrated
    (D) learning of a language is mediated by humanistic approaches
45. ‘Risk-taking’ is one of the traits of a good
    (A) language learner
    (B) language teacher
    (C) teacher of grammar rules
    (D) printer of books and authors
46. A teaching method advocated by Dr. Georgia Lozanav which is based on
      the principle of ‘joy and easiness’ is called
    (A) Suggesto paedia
    (B) Total physical response
    (C) The Direct Method
    (D) The audio-lingual method
47. Albert Camus, in his essay, ‘The Myth of Sisyphus’ conveys :
    1. The concept of Naturalism
    2. The Absurdity of Human Existence
    3. The Futility of all Human Endeavour
    4. The concept of Existentialism
    (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
    (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
    (C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
    (D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
48. In The Portrait of a Lady Gilbert Osmond marries Isabel Archer
      because
    1. Osmond wanted to get hold of Isabel’s property.
    2. He loved her
    3. Though he did not like her moral ideas about many things
         in life, he had hoped to win her over.
    4. He realized that her moral ideas were quite deep-rooted.
    Find the correct combination according to the code :
    (A) only 1 and 2 are correct
    (B) only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
    (C) only 3 and 4 are correct
    (D) only 1 is correct
49. Pick out the two relevant and correct descriptions of U.R.
     Ananthamurthy’s Samskara.
    1. The novel is written in English
    2. The novel is concerned with the progressive ideas of the times.
    3. The novel is set in Malgudi
    4. The novel is a satire on the representatives of a decadent Brahmin society.
    5. Samskara is a regional novel
    6. Praneschacharya does not atone for his sin.
    (A) 4 and 5 are correct
    (B) 1 and 4 are correct
    (C) 5 and 6 are correct
    (D) 3 and 2 are correct
50. Willy in Arthur Miller’s play Death of a Salesman compares Biff and
       Happy to the mythic characters / figures
    (A) Venus and Adonais
    (B) Adonais and Hercules
    (C) Jupiter and Hercules
    (D) Venus and Hercules
    Question Nos 51 to 55 are based on a poem. Read the poem carefully and pick
    out the most appropriate answers. A Valediction Forbidding Mourning
    My swirling wants, your frozen lips. The grammar turned and attacked me.
    Themes, written under duress. Emptiness of the notations.
    They gave me a drug that slowed the healing of wounds.
    I want you to see this before I leave : the experience of repetition as death
    the failure of criticism to locate the pain the poster in the bus that said :
    my bleeding is under control A red plant in a cemetary of plastic wreaths.
    A last attempt : the language is a dialect called metaphor.
    These images go unglossed : hair, glacier, flashlight.
    When I think of a landscape I am thinking of a time.
    When I talk of taking a trip I mean forever. I could say : those mountains have a
    meaning but further than that I could not say.
    To do something very common, in my own way.
    Adrienne Rich
51. How does the poet suggest that the lover has not left ?
    (A) The words “a last attempt” indicate that she is trying her
          best to leave.
    (B) The words “before I leave” suggest that the speaker has not
           left yet.
    (C) The speaker talks of a trip ‘forever’ which means she will
           never return.
    (D) A drug she takes slows the healing of her wounds perhaps
          indicating that she may be able to leave sometime in future.
52. Why does the speaker/lover in Rich’s poem plan to leave ?
    I. Because her love has not been returned.
    II. Because of the pain she has suffered in the relationship.
    III. Because the lover has criticized her so much.
    IV. Because though the pain has been located, the bleeding continues.
    The right combination according to the code is
    (A) I and II are correct
    (B) I and IV are correct
    (C) I, II and III are correct
    (D) I and III are correct
53. What does Rich imply when she says “The grammar turned and attacked
       me” ?
    (A) Language that has been used to hurt her.
    (B) Her lover has beaten her.
    (C) The person she is leaving is not the source of pain but something else.
    (D) The pain she has herself inflicted through language.
54. How would you compare Rich’s poem and Donne’s poem with the
      same title ?
    (A) Rich is recreating Donne’s poem
    (B) Rich is eulogising Donne’s poem
    (C) Rich’s poem is a scathing attack on Donne’s poem.
    (D) Rich is defining Donne’s concept of love
55. What is the theme of the poem ? Identify the false statement in the list
       below :
    It is
    (A) about the difficulty of actually saying goodbye.
    (B) about not having the strength to leave though one might want to.
    (C) about the pain suffered in relationship.
    (D) a Classical love poem like Donne’s where the speaker
          dominates the addressee.
56. Why does Girish Karnad base his play Hayavadana on Thomas Mann’s
      Transposed Heads ?
    (A) It is a mock-heroic transcription of the original Sanskrit tales.
    (B) It is concerned with materialism.
    (C) It deals with domestic strife.
    (D) It deals with ancient times.
57. The collected poems of A.K. Ramanujan has been divided into
       four sections. Arrange them in their chronological order :
    (A) The striders – The Relations – Second Sight – the Black Hen
    (B) The Relations – The Striders – The Black Hen – Second Sight
    (C) Second Sight – The Relations – The Black Hen – Striders
    (D) The Black Hen – Second Sight – The Striders – The Relations
58. In one of her novels, Margaret Atwood demonstrated the potentially
     ‘Cannibalistic’ nature of human relationships. Identify the novel :
    (A) Surfacing
    (B) Lady Oracle
    (C) Life Before Man
    (D) The Edible Woman
59. Match the characters with the novels of Amitav Ghosh in which they
      appear according to the code given below :
              List – I                        List – II
         (Characters)                    (Novels)
    i. Fakir                       1. The Glass Palace
    ii. Tridip                      2. The Hungry Tide
    iii. Rajkumar               3. The Calcutta Chromosome
    iv. Murugan                4. Shadow Lines
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  2  4  1  3
    (B)  2  4  3  1
    (C)  1  3  1  4
    (D)  3  2  4  1
60. Which of the following is not a play by Badal Sircar ?
    (A) Bhooma
    (B) Evam Indrajeet
    (C) That Other History
    (D) Agra Bazar
61. Who is the protagonist of Shashi Deshpande’s That Long Silence ?
    (A) Mohan             (B) Jaya
    (C) Rati                  (D) Kamat
62. In Derek Walcott’s Dream on Monkey Mountain, Makak’s vision
      of freedom for his people is
    (A) through money
    (B) through violence
    (C) through black power
    (D) through a decolonisation of the mind
63. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the
      other as Reason (R).
    Assertion (A) : To give a text an author is to impose a limit on
                            that text, to furnish it with a final signified, to close the
                            writing.
    Reason (R) : A text is made up of multiple meanings drawn
                        from many sources, and this multiplicity is focused on the
                        reader.
    In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.\
64. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the
       other as Reason (R).
    Assertion (A) : Spivak sees the project of colonialism as
                            characterized by what Foucault had called ‘epistemic violence’,
                             the imposition of a given set of beliefs over another.
    Reason (R) : Spivak suggests that participation in the political process – access to
                         citizenship, becoming a voter – will help to mobilize the
                         subaltern on “the long road to hegemony.”
    In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
65. Match the following authors with their works from the given below :
                List – I                       List – II
              (Authors)                     (Works)
    i. Buchi Emecheta          1. Burger’s Daughter
    ii. Ama Ata Aidoo         2. Joy of Motherhood
    iii. Nadine Gordimer      3. Devil on the Cross
    iv. Nqugi Wa Thiongo    4. Our Sister Killjoy
    Find the correct combination according to the code :
    Codes :
            i   ii  ii i iv
    (A)  1  2  3  4
    (B)  2  4  1  3
    (C)  3  1  4  2
    (D)  4  3  2  1
66. Match the following authors with their plays from the lists given below :
                   List – I                        List – II
                 (Authors)                       (Plays)
    i. Langston Hughes               1. Dutchman
    ii. Lorraine Hansberry           2. Clara’s Ole Man
    iii. Ed Bullins                         3. Don’t You want to be Free
    iv. Amiri Baraka                    4. Raisin in the Sun
    Find the correct combination according to the code :
    Codes :
            i   i  i iii  iv
    (A)  3  4  2  1
    (B)  1  2  3  4
    (C)  2  1  4  3
    (D)  4  3  1  2
67. Identify the critics and their respective works :
    (A) Horace – Ars Poetica Aristotle – Poetics Quintillian – Institutio Oratoria
           Ben Jonson – Discoveries Sidney – An Apology for Poetry
           Dryden – An Essay of Dramatic Poesy
    (B) Horace – Poetics Aristotle – Ars Poetica Quintillian – On the sublime
          Longinus – Discoveries Ben Jonson – Institutio Oratoria
          Sidney – An Essay of Dramatic Poesy Dryden – An Apology for Poetry
    (C) Horace – On the sublime Aristotle – Poetics Quintillian – Discoveries
           Longinus – Institutio Oratoria Ben Jonson – An Essay of
           Dramatic Poesy Sidney – Ars Poetica Dryden – An Apology for Poetry
    (D) Horace – Ars Poetica Aristotle – Poetics Quintillian – Institutio Oratoria
           Longinus – On the Sublime Ben Jonson – An Apology for
           Poetry Sidney – An Essay of Dramatic Poesy Dryden – Discoveries
68. Which of the following is not true of Imagist poetry ?
    (A) The poet spreads his language across the page as though
           language were sensation, to reproduce the mental effect of ‘image’.
    (B) The image is itself an instrument of vision, or lens, as
          well as an expression of imagination
    (C) The imagist like a scientist learns from history and uses it,
           and like a scientist does not deal in emotions.
    (D) The new artist as scientist focuses vision through image
           as against the symbol which resorts to reduction to simplicity.
69. Who among the following is not a myth critic ?
    (A) Robert Graves
    (B) Raymond Williams
    (C) Francis Fergusson
    (D) Northrop Frye
70. According to Northrop Frye there are four main narrative genres associated
      with the seasonal cycle of spring, summer, autumn and winter. They
      are comedy, ________, tragedy and irony (satire). Which is the second
      one ?
    (A) Romance            (B) Epic
    (C) Fiction                (D) Novel
    Questions No. 71 – 75 are based on the following passage :
    Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option.
    The town belonging to the colonized people, or at least the native town, the
    negro village, the medina, the reservation, is a place of ill fame, peopled by men of
    evil repute. They are born there, it matters little where or how; they die there, it
    matters not where, nor how. The native town is a hungry town, starved of bread, of
    meat, of shoes, of coal, of light. The native town is a crouching village, town on its
    knees, a town wallowing in the mire. The look that the native turns on the settler is a
    look of lust, of envy…. The colonized man is an envious man. And this the settler
    knows very well… It is true, for there is no native who does not dream atleast once
    a day of setting himself up in the settler’s place.
    (From Frantz Fanon’s The Wretched of The Earth)
71. To Frantz Fanon, the ‘Negro’ village is
    1. the worst face of apartheid
    2. a protected area
    3. a place of moral and physical degradation
    4. a special village with its own amenities.
    (A) 1 and 3 are correct
    (B) 1 and 2 are correct
    (C) only 3 is correct
    (D) only 4 is correct
72. Why is the ‘native town’ a hungry town ?
    1. it did not have agricultural farms
    2. it did not have markets
    3. the blacks were steeped in poverty
    4. they were denied their fundamental rights by the Whites.
    (A) 1 and 2 are correct
    (B) 3 and 4 are correct
    (C) only 1 is correct
    (D) only 4 is correct
73. What does the term ‘crouching village’ indicate ?
    1. The latent aggressiveness of the blacks
    2. The defenselessness of the people
    3. Hopelessness and despair
    4. Overflowing filth
    (A) 1 and 2 are correct
    (B) 2 and 3 are correct
    (C) only 1 is correct
    (D) only 2 is correct
74. Why does the native look at the settler’s town with envy ?
    1. it arises from a sense of desperation
    2. he has no other option in his life
    3. he wants to occupy a position of power.
    4. he wants to be the colonizer instead of the colonized.
    (A) only 1 is correct
    (B) 3 and 4 are correct
    (C) only 2 is correct
    (D) 1 and 4 are correct
75. What is the settler’s attitude towards the blacks ?
    1. the settler is not afraid
    2. the settler considers the blacks to be harmless
    3. the settler is contemptuous of the blacks.
    4. the settler feels resentment because he knows that his
        position is never safe.
    (A) only 1 is correct
    (B) 2 and 3 are correct
    (C) only 4 is correct
    (D) 3 and 4 are correct

UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED ENGLISH PAPER II

                LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAL
                      UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED ENGLISH PAPER II
01. “The just man justices. What kind of foregrounding do you find in the
        above lines ?
    (A) Syntactic
    (B) Semantic
    (C) Collocation
    (D) None of the above
02. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II according to the code
      given :
        List – I                           List – II
    i. Lambic                1. An unstressed syllable followed by a stressed syllable
    ii. Anapaestic          2. A stressed is followed by two unstressed
                                      syllables.
    iii. Dactylic              3. An unstressed syllable is followed by a
                                       stressed syllable
    iv. Trochaic              4. A stressed syllable is followed by an
                                      unstressed syllable
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  2  1  3  4
    (B)  3  2  1  4
    (C)  4  1  2  3
    (D)  3  1  2  4
03. The separation of styles in accordance with class appears more
      consistently in _______ than in medieval works of literature and art.
    (A) Ben Jonson
    (B) Shakespeare
    (C) Philip Sidney
    (D) Edmund Spenser
04. “Had we but world enough, and time, This coyness, lady, were no crime.”
       This statement is an example of
    (A) Irony
    (B) Paradox
    (C) Hyperbole
    (D) Euphemism
05. A Spenserian stanza has
    (A) four iambic pentameters
    (B) six iambic pentameters
    (C) eight iambic pentameters
    (D) ten iambic pentameters
06. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II according to the code
      given below :
               List – I                List – II
               (Critic)               (Theory)
    i. Cleanth
       Brooks                    1. Ambiguity
    ii. William
        Empson                  2. Paradox
    iii. Mark
        Schorer                  3. Archetypal patterns in poetry
    iv. Maud
        Bodkin                   4. Techniques as discovery
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  2  1  4  3
    (B)  3  2  1  4
    (C)  1  2  3  4
    (D)  2  3  4  1
07. “The artist may be present in his work like God in creation, invisible
        and almighty, everywhere felt but nowhere seen.” Henry James is
        talking here about the artist’s
    (A) impersonality
    (B) absence
    (C) presence
    (D) creativity
08. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II according to the code given
      below :
             List – I                       List – II
          (Theorist)                      (Book)
       i. Michel
          Foucault               1. Gender Trouble
    ii. Judith Butler            2. Epistemology of the Closet
    iii. Alan Sinfield           3. History of Sexuality
    iv. Eve Kosofsky
        Sedgwick               4. Cultural Politics- Queer Reading
    Which is the correct combination according to the code :
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  3  1  2  4
    (B)  3  1  4  2
    (C)  4  2  1  3
    (D)  4  3  1  2
09. “The greatness of a poet”, Arnold says, “lies in his powerful and beautiful
        application of ideas to life”. But a critic pointed out it was “not a happy
        way of putting it, as if ideas were a lotion for the inflamed skin of
        suffering humanity”. Who was this critic ?
    (A) T.S. Eliot             (B) F.R. Leavis
    (C) David Lodge       (D) Allen Tate
10. Derrida’s American disciples were
    (A) Geoffrey Hartman, Paul de Man, J. Hills Miller
    (B) Gertrude Stein, Barbara Johnson, Michael Ryan
    (C) Barbara Johnson, Michael Ryan, Mary Ellman
    (D) Jean Baudrillard, Gilles Deleuze, Felix Guattari
11. Identify the correct group of playhouses in late sixteenth century
      London from the following groups :
    (A) Curtain, Rose, Swan, Globe, Hope
    (B) Curtain, Rose, Swan, Globe, Sejanus
    (C) Hope, Curtain, Rose, Swan, Globe
    (D) Swan, Curtain, Rose, Globe, Thames
12. “Keep up your bright swords, for the dew will rust them.
       Good Signior, you shall more command with years.
       Than with your weapons.” The above lines are addresses by Othello to
    (A) Roderigo and officers
    (B) Brabantio, Roderigo and Officers
    (C) The Duke and Senators
    (D) Montano and Cassio
13. Act V of Marlowe’s Edward the Second shows the murder of the king.
      Where does it take place ?
    (A) Westminster, a room in the palace
    (B) A room in Berkeley Castle
    (C) A room in Killingworth Castle
    (D) Within the Abbey of Neath
14. Identify the correctly matched set :
    (A) “The Shepheards Calender” – 1579 Tottels Miscellany – 1557
           Astrophel and Stella – 1591 The Spanish Tragedie – about  1585
    (B) “The Shepheards Calender” – 1559 Tottels Miscellany – 1579
           Astrophel and Stella – 1585 The Spanish Tragedie – about 1591
    (C) “The Shepheards Calender” – 1585 Tottels Miscellany – 1591
            Astrophel and Stella – 1579 The Spanish Tragedie – about 1557
    (D) “The Shepheards Calender” – 1579 Tottels Miscellany – 1591
            Astrophel and Stella – about 1585
           The Spanish Tragedie – about 1557
15. Match the items in the List – I with items in List – II according to the code
      given below :
            List – I                                 List – II
          (Authors)                               (Works)
    i. Lucy Hutchinson          1. The Life and Death of Mr. Badman
    ii. John Bunyan               2. Sylva : or a Discourse of Forest Trees
    iii. John Evelyn                3. Natures Pictures
    iv. Margaret Cavendish   4. Memoirs of the Life of Colonel Hutchinson
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  2  3  1  4
    (B)  4  3  2  1
    (C)  4  1  2  3
    (D)  4  2  1  3
16. “But deeds, and language, such as men do use;
       And persons, such as comedy would choose,
       When she would show an image of the time,
       and sport with human follies, not with crime.”
       In the above lines Jonson I. Opposes the artificiality of the
       romantic tragic-comedy. II. Initiates the use of realism.
       III. Considers analysis of moral short comings more important
       IV. Encourages the use of farce with melodrama.
    Find out the correct combination according to the code :
    (A) I, II and III are correct
    (B) I, II and IV are correct
    (C) I, III and IV are correct
    (D) II, III and IV are correct
17. “And if no peece of chronicle we prove, We’ll build in ________ pretty
       roomes.”
    (A) lyrics                 (B) epics
    (C) sonnets             (D) stanzas
18. “That glory never shall his wrath or might extort from me.” (Paradise
       Lost, Book I)
    What ‘glory’ is being referred to by Satan ?
    (A) The courage never to submit or yield
    (B) To reign in Hell
    (C) To defeat God
    (D) To spread evil
19. It has been described as a “novel without predecessors”, the product of
      an original mind and became immediately popular. It is a peculiar
      blend of pathos and humour, though the pathos is sometimes overdone to
      the point of becoming offensively sentimental.
     The novel was published in 1760. What is the name of the novel ?
    (A) Gulliver’s Travels
    (B) The Castle of Otranto
    (C) Tristram Shandy
    (D) A Tender Husband
20. The son of a joiner, he was apprenticed as a printer. He remained
      a printer throughout his life. He was asked to prepare a series of modern
      letters for those who could not write for themselves. This humble task
      taught him the art of expressing himself in letters. Who is the novelist ?
    (A) Daniel Defoe
    (B) Samuel Richardson
    (C) Henry Fielding
    (D) Tobias Smollett
21. “Where ignorance is Bliss Tis folly to be wise.” Who wrote the
         following lines ?
    (A) Pope              (B) Gray
    (C) Collins           (D) Southey
22. Which of the following works is not actually a prose essay ?
    (A) Essay of Dramatic Poesy
    (B) Essay on Man
    (C) An Essay Concerning Human Understanding
    (D) An Essay Towards a New Theory of Vision
23. Whom does Mirabell deceive into believing that he loves her in The
      Way of the World ?
    (A) Millamant
    (B) Lady Wishfort
    (C) Mrs. Marwood
    (D) Mrs. Fainall
24. “Competence to age is supplementary to youth, a sorry
        supplement indeed, but I fear the best that is to be had. We must ride where
        we formerly walked : live better and be softer and shall be wise to do so –
        than we had means to do in the good old days you speak of.”
        Who speaks these words and to whom ?
    (A) Lamb to Bridget
    (B) Wordsworth to Dorothy
    (C) Dorothy to Bridget
    (D) Lamb to Dorothy
25. The Prelude although begun as early as 1799 and finished in its first
      version in 1805, was not published until ________.
    (A) 1815             (B) 1820
    (C) 1830             (D) 1850
26. “A rosy sanctuary will I dress With the wreathed trellis of a
       working brain.” The above lines are quoted from
    (A) ‘Adonais’
    (B) ‘Ode to Psyche’
    (C) ‘Eve of St. Agnes’
    (D) ‘Endymion’
27. “Love seeketh only self to please, To bind another to its delight.”
       This selfish and possessive nature of love is illustrated in Blake’s
    (A) ‘The Clod and the Pebble’
    (B) ‘The Sick Rose’
    (C) ‘A Poison Tree’
    (D) ‘Ah Sunflower’
28. Who is the author of Mary, and the unfinished The Wrongs of Woman ?
    (A) Mary Wollstonecraft
    (B) William Godwin
    (C) Mary Hay
    (D) Elizabeth Inchbald
29. Identify the incorrect factor in Henry James’ theory of the novel :
    (A) It should be sentimental
    (B) It should be objective
    (C) It should be realistic
    (D) It should be viewed as an artistic form
30. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II according to the code
      given below :
            List – I                         List – II
          (Novels)                     (Characters)
    i. Ulysses                        1. Mrs. Moore
    ii. A Passage to India      2. Molly Bloom
    iii. To the Lighthouse       3. Gerald Crich
    iv. Women in Love          4. Lily Briscoe
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  3  1  2  4
    (B)  2  1  4  3
    (C)  4  2  1  3
    (D)  1  3  2  4
31. Which among the following novels was not written in 1922 ?
    (A) Ulysses
    (B) Jacob’s room
    (C) Aaron’s Rod
    (D) A Passage to India
32. “A sudden blow : the great wings beating still
       Above the staggering girl, her thighs caressed
       By the dark webs, her nap caught in his bill,
       He holds her helpless breast upon his breast.”
    Who is the author of the above lines ?
    (A) W.B. Yeats
    (B) T.S. Eliot
    (C) W.H. Auden
    (D) D.H. Lawrence
33. “Consume my heart away; sick with desire
        And fastened to a dying animal.” The above lines are taken from
    (A) “Felix Randal”
    (B) “Sailing to Byzantium”
    (C) “Coole and the Ballylee, 1931”
    (D) “The Second Coming”
34. Who among the following is not a surrealist poet ?
    (A) Hugh Sykes Dykes
    (B) David Gascoyne
    (C) Kenneth Allot
    (D) C. Day Lewis
35. The protagonist returns with an admonition, the diamond sent to him
      for smuggling out a packet of diamonds as bribe.
     This scene occurs in one of the novels of Graham Greene – Identify
     the novel
    (A) The End of the Affair
    (B) The Heart of the Matter
    (C) The Ministry of Fear
    (D) Our Man in Havana
36. Samuel Beckett’s trilogy published together in London in 1959 under the
      English titles is
    (A) More Pricks than Kicks, Murphy, Molloy
    (B) B. Molloy, Malone Dies, The Unnamable
    (C) Molloy, Murphy, Malone Dies
    (D) The Unnamable, More Pricks than Kicks, Murphy
37. Among the following playwrights, who was awarded the Pulitzer prize
       in 1920 ?
    (A) Eugene O’Neill
    (B) Sean O’Casey
    (C) William Somerset Maugham
    (D) J.B. Priestly
38. D.H. Lawrence popularized the concept of ________ in his novels.
    (A) Realism
    (B) Naturalism
    (C) Primitivism
    (D) Expressionism
39. Who among the following is not an American modernist poet ?
    (A) William Carlos Williams
    (B) Ezra Pound
    (C) William Ellery Channing, the younger
    (D) Marianne Moore
40. An important poet and playwright who in the 1960s led the Black Arts
      Movement, in the spirit of negritude, posited a ‘Black Aesthetic’ that
      expressed a pan-African, organic and whole sensibility.
    (A) Henry Louis Gates Jr.
    (B) Amiri Baraka
    (C) Ishmael Reed
    (D) Bell Hooks
41. Match List – I with List – II according to the code given below :
                 List – I                    List – II
              (Authors)                   (Books)
    i. V.S. Naipaul                   1. Foe
    ii. Jean Rhys                      2. Indigo or Mapping the Waters
    iii. Marina Warners            3. Wide Sargasso Sea
    iv. J.M. Coetzee                4. Mimic Men
    Codes :
            i   i i iii  iv
    (A)  4  2  3  1
    (B)  4  1  2  3
    (C)  4  3  2  1
    (D)  1  3  4  2
42. Yasmine Gooneratne’s The Pleasures of Conquest termed as a
       postcolonial novel of the nineties is ironically enough set in the tropical
       island nation of
    (A) Sri Lanka
    (B) Fiji
    (C) The Caribbean
    (D) Amnesia
43. Which of the following is not an Asian – Canadian writer ?
    (A) Shauna Singh Badlwin
    (B) Himani Banerjee
    (C) Joy Kogawa
    (D) Meena Alexander
44. Which of the following is true ?
    (A) ‘Aurora Leigh’ is a poem in nine books
    (B) ‘Aurora Leigh’ is a collection of sonnets from the Portuguese
    (C) ‘Aurora Leigh’ is a nursery rhyme book
    (D) ‘Aurora Leigh’ is “the Seeds and Fruits of English Poetry”
45. “The old order changeth yielding place to new,
        And God fulfils himself in many way.”
    In which of the following poems do these lines appear ?
    (A) ‘Locksley Hall’
    (B) ‘Two Voices
    (C) ‘Morte d’Arthur’
    (D) ‘Ulysses’
46. George Eliot’s attempt to write a historical novel of the Italian
      Renaissance was not successful. Which was this novel ?
    (A) Adam Bede
    (B) Felix Holt
    (C) Silas Marner
    (D) Romola
47. In which novel, does the hero, driven by passion and revenge, add a new
      dimension to the concept of suffering ?
    (A) Wuthering Heights
    (B) Jude the Obscure
    (C) Mill on the Floss
    (D) Hard Times
48. From the following women characters in Hardy’s novels choose
      the odd one out :
    (A) Bathsheba Everdene
    (B) Eustacia Vye
    (C) Elizabeth Jane
    (D) Lucetta
49. “Out of the gosple he tho wordes caughte
       And this figure he added eek therto,
      That if gold ruste, what shal iren do ?”
       In the Prologue the Parson is represented as a man :
    1. who loved money
    2. who criticized the corrupt clergy
    3. who practiced what he preached
    4. who was a poor but honest clerk
    Find the correct combination according to the code :
    (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
    (B) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
    (C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
    (D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
50. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II according to the code
     given below :
                 List – I                    List – II
                 (Plays)                 (Characters)
    i. White Devil                1. Hieornimo
    ii. Maids Tragedy          2. Old Knowell
    iii. Every Man in
        his Humour               3. Vittoria Corombona
    iv. The Spanish
        Tragedie                   4. Aspatia
    Codes :
            i   ii  iii  iv
    (A)  4  3  1  2
    (B)  2  1  3  4
    (C)  3  4  2  1
    (D)  4  3  2  1

UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED ECONOMICS PAPER III

                    LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE  COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAL
                           UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED ECONOMICS PAPER III
01. Which of the following are the basic assumptions of cardinal utility
      analysis ?
    I. Utility is a measurable and quantifiable entity.
    II. Marginal utility of money changes with changes in real income.
    III. Utilities derived from various goods are inter-dependent.
    IV. The use of introspective method in judging the
          behaviour of marginal utility.
    Codes :
    (A) I and II are correct.
    (B) I and III are correct.
    (C) I and IV are correct.
    (D) I, III and IV are correct.
02. Engel Curve denotes
    (A) various amounts of a good which a consumer would be
          willing to purchase at various price levels.
    (B) various amounts of a good which a consumer would be
          willing to purchase at various income levels.
    (C) various amounts of a good purchased when the price of its
          substitutes tend to rise.
    (D) the relationship between income effect and substitution effect.
03. A producer is said to be operating with excess capacity
    (A) when he produces an output greater than that given by the
          minimum Average Total Cost
    (B) when he produces an output greater than at given by the
          maximum Average Total Cost
    (C) When he produces an output equal to that given by the
           minimum Average Total Cost
    (D) When he produces an output smaller than that given by the
          Minimum Average Total Cost
04. Assertion (A) : Harvey Leibenstein asserted that marginal
                             conditions required for economic efficiency are not
                             usually satisfied in practice.
      Reason (R) : People are not fully motivated towards
                          maximization or minimization.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
    (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is incorrect explanation
          of (A).
    (D) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.
05. A graphical illustration used to explain efficiency conditions and
     demonstrates how the allocations of some goods and resources can be
     improved through exchange is called
    (A) production possibility curves
    (B) social indifference curves
    (C) Edgeworth box diagram
    (D) Phillips curve
06. Match the following :
           List – I                                   List - II
    a. A double Kaldor-Hicks
       Test                                        1. A. Bergson
    b. Compensation Principle          2. K.J. Arrow
    c. Social Welfare function           3. T. Scitovsky
    d. Impossibility theorem             4. Kaldor- Hicks
    Codes :
           a b c d
    (A) 4 1 3 2
    (B) 3 4 1 2
    (C) 3 4 2 1
    (D) 4 3 2 1
07. The oligopoly model in which the businessman assumes that his
      competitors output are fixed and simultaneously decide how much to
      produce is
    (A) Cournot oligopoly model
    (B) Stackelberg oligopoly model
    (C) Chamberlin’s oligopoly model
    (D) Bertrand oligopoly model
08. According to Game Theory, if increased advertising, raises costs
      more than revenues and the profits of both firms decline, we have a
    (A) Positive-sum game
    (B) Non zero-sum game
    (C) Zero-sum game
    (D) Negative-sum game
09. Arrows impossibility theorem implies
    (A) Any social decision rule should not violates the requirements of
          rational choice.
    (B) Any social decision rule must violate atleast one of the
          requirements of rational choice.
    (C) Any social decision rule must violate all the requirements of
          rational choice.
    (D) It is impossible to violate social decision rules.
10. ‘Bandwagon effect’ is found in
    (A) Relative Income hypothesis
    (B) Permanent Income hypothesis
    (C) Life cycle Hypothesis
    (D) Absolute Income hypothesis
12. Complete the statements given in List – I with there given in List – II :
               List – I                            List – II
    a. Instantaneous
        adjustment of
        income with
        investment
       spending
       occurs in                          1. MPC is smaller
    b. Consumption
        lags income by
        one period in                   2. increase in investment
                                                  expenditure is once-forall
    c. Value of
        investment
        multiplier is
        zero when                      3. state multiplier
    d. Major portion
       of multiplier is
       realized in
       fewer periods when        4. dynamic multiplier
    Codes :
          a b c d
    (A) 3 4 1 2
    (B) 3 4 2 1
    (C) 4 3 1 2
    (D) 2 3 1 4
13. Assertion (A) : The individual speculative demand for money
                              is a discontinuous one.
      Reason (R) : Because the aggregate speculative demand for money
                          function is smooth downward sloping with liquidity trap at
                          extremely low interest rates.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
    (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
14. Transaction Cost is also called
    (A) Shoe Leather Cost
    (B) Menu Cost
    (C) Opportunity Cost of holding cash
    (D) All of the above
15. Given the consumption function, C = 0.8Y, and the investment function
       I = 102 – 0.2i, then the IS-curve is
    (A) Y = 500 – 10i               (B) Y = 450 – i
    (C) Y = 510 – i                   (D) Y = 505 – 2i
16. Match the premise given in List – I with that in List – II :
                List – I                                          List – II
    a. Price expectations are static            1. Okun’s law
    b. Price expectations are adaptive       2. Phillips Curve
    c. People do not make systematic
       errors                                              3. Natural Rate of unemployment
                                                                  hypothesis
    d. Deviations of output from its
        natural rate is inversely related
        to the deviation of unemployment
        rate from its natural level                  4. Rational expectations hypothesis
    Codes :
          a b c d
    (A) 2 3 4 1
    (B) 4 3 2 1
    (C) 1 3 4 2
    (D) 4 2 1 3

18. When the aggregate supply schedule is positively sloped, continuous
      increases in the nominal money supply, ceteris parilus, result in
    (A) No change in the price level and proportional increases in
          real output.
    (B) No change in real output and proportional increases in the price level.
    (C) An increase in the price level and real output.
    (D) An increase in the price level and a decrease in real output.
19. “Golden Age” as per Mrs. Joan Robinson is (where ΔN/N
        is growth rate of population and ΔK/K is growth rate of capital)
    (A) ΔN/N=ΔK/K
    (B)ΔN/N>ΔK/K
    (C)ΔN/N<ΔK/K
    (D) None of the above
20. A technical change is neutral if MPK/ MPL
      remains unchanged at constant K/L
      ratio :
    (A) Harrod             (B) Hicks
    (C) Solow              (D) Kaldor
21. Concept of disembodied technical change is associated with
    I. Abramovitz      II. Kaldor
    III. Kendrick      IV. Solow
    (A) I and II                   (B) III and IV
    (C) I, III and IV            (D) II, III and IV
22. Joan Robinson’s growth model deals with
    I. Desired growth rate
    II. Possible growth rate
    III. Natural growth rate
    IV. Warranted growth rate
    Codes :
     (A) I and III           (B) II and IV
     (C) I and II            (D) III and IV
23. Assertion (A) : To Marx, it is surplus labour that lead to capital accumulation.
      Reason (R) : The difference between actual labour and subsistence
                           labour that a labourer puts in for which he receives nothing
                           is surplus labour.
    Codes :
    (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
    (B) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
    (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
24. Arrange the “Structural Development Processes” in a sequential order :
    I. Resource Allocation Processes
    II. Accumulation Process
    III. Distributional Processes
    IV. Demographic Processes
    Codes :
    (A) I, IV, II, III         (B) II, I, IV, III
    (C) III, II, I, IV         (D) IV, III, I, II
25. Match the items in List – I with List – II :
                    List – I                                    List – II
    a. MPL is zero in overpopulated
        economies                                        1. Gunnar Myrdal
    b. Two gap model                                 2. J.E. Mead
    c. Critical growth rate                           3. Arthur Lewis
    d. Backwash effects                             4. Hollis Chenery & others
    Codes :
          a b c d
    (A) 1 3 4 2
    (B) 3 4 2 1
    (C) 2 1 3 4
    (D) 4 2 1 3
26. Match the items in List – I with List – II :
                    List – I                                         List – II
    a. Learning by doing                                 1. Kaldor
    b. Biased Technical Progress                    2. Karl Sax
    c. Co-efficient of sensitivity of
        income distribution                               3. Kenneth J. Arrow
    d. Theory of Demographic
        Transition : Four stages of
        Population growth                                4. Joan Robinson
    Codes :
          a b c d
    (A) 3 4 1 2
    (B) 1 3 2 4
    (C) 2 1 4 3
    (D) 4 2 3 1
27. Assertion (A) : Solow model is a major improvement over
                              Harrod-Domar Model.
      Reason (R) : Solow built a model of long run growth without the
                          assumption of fixed proportion in production.
    Codes :
    (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct reason of (A).
    (B) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
    (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
28. The concentrations effect explained in Peacock-Wiseman hypothesis
      implies
    (A) public expenditure does not increase in smooth and continuous manner
    (B) public expenditure increases the necessity of increased revenue
    (C) the Central Government’s economic activity to grow
          faster than that of subnational Governments
    (D) absolute level of public expenditure increases
29. A tax imposed upon monopoly profits
    (A) can be shifted forward
    (B) can be shifted backward
    (C) can be shifted both forward and backward
    (D) cannot be shifted
30. The plan expenditure on Revenue Account of the Union Government
      includes
    I. Economic Services
    II. Social and community services
    III. Grants-in-aid to States and Union Territories
    IV. Loans and Advances to finance public enterprises
    Codes :
    (A) I and II are correct.
    (B) I, II and III are correct.
    (C) I, II and IV are correct.
    (D) I, II, III and IV are correct.
31. Debt obligations of Government of India (Government liabilities)
    I. State Provident Funds
    II. Small Savings
    III. Reserve Funds and Deposits
    IV. Consolidated Fund of India
    Codes :
    (A) II and III are correct.
    (B) I, II and III are correct.
    (C) II, III and IV are correct.
    (D) I, III and IV are correct.
32. Identify the chronology of the following Committees on tax reforms
      in India :
    I. Committee on Taxation of Agricultural Income and Wealth
    II. Kaldor Proposal for Tax Reform in India
    III. Taskforces on Direct and Indirect Taxes
    IV. Direct Taxes Administration Enquiry Committee
    Codes :
    (A) II, I, IV, III            (B) II, IV, I, III
    (C) II, III, I, IV           (D) I, III, IV, II
33. Which of the following are the role of Finance Commissions in India ?
    I. To make recommendations on the distribution of tax proceeds
        between Centre and States.
    II. To make Recommendations on levying, removing or
          restructuring of taxes.
    III. To recommend Grants-in-aid under Article 275 of the
          Constitution
    IV. To recommend plan and other grants under Article 282 of the
         Constitution
    Codes :
    (A) I and II are correct.
    (B) I and III are correct.
    (C) I, III and IV are correct.
    (D) All are correct.
34. Under a managed floating exchange rate system, the nation’s monetary
      authorities intervene in foreign exchange markets to
    (A) smooth out short-run and longrun fluctuations in exchange rates
    (B) keep exchange rates fixed among a group of nations
    (C) smooth out short-run fluctuations in exchange rates
    (D) keep exchange rates flexible
35. Euro currency market is a part of a larger global market known as
      Eurodollar market.
    (A) Above statement is correct.
    (B) Above statement is not correct.
    (C) Above statement is partially correct.
    (D) Above statement is partially incorrect.
36. Match the following :
                       List – I                                       List – II
    a. WTO                                            1. Provide finance to correct
                                                                disequilibrium in balance of
                                                                payments.
    b. IMF                                              2. Generally forbids
                                                                 the use of quantitative
                                                                 restrictions in trade.
    c. SAARC                                         3. Sanction of soft loans
    d. IDA                                               4. Promotes trade among South
                                                                  Asian Countries
    Codes :
          a b c d
    (A) 1 2 3 4
    (B) 2 3 4 1
    (C) 2 1 4 3
    (D) 3 2 4 1
37. A sudden shift from import tariffs to free trade may induce short term
      unemployment in
    (A) import competing industries
    (B) industries that are only exporters
    (C) industries that sell domestically as well as export
    (D) industries that neither import nor export
38. The immediate cause for the collapse of the Bretton woods system was
    (A) the expectation that the U.S.A. would soon be forced to
         devalue the dollar
    (B) the massive flight of liquid capital from the U.S.A.
    (C) the attempt by three small European Central Banks to
          convert part of their dollar holding into gold at the Federal
          Reserve Bank.
    (D) All of the above
39. A feasible effect of international trade is that
    (A) a monopoly in the home market becomes an oligopoly in the
          world market
    (B) an oligopoly in the home market becomes a monopoly in
          the world market
    (C) a purely competitive firm in the home market becomes an
          oligopolist
    (D) a purely competitive firm in the home market becomes a
          monopolist
40. The European Union has achieved all of the following, except
    (A) adopted a common fiscal policy for member nations
    (B) established a common system of agricultural price supports
    (C) disbanded all tariffs between its member countries
    (D) levied common tariffs on products imported from nonmembers
41. A Foreign Trade Zone (FTZ) is
    (A) a regional area within which trade with foreign nations is allowed
    (B) a free trade agreement among several nations
    (C) designed to promote exports by deferring import duties on
          intermediate inputs and waving such duties if the final product
          is re-exported rather than sold domestically
    (D) designed to limit exports of manufactured goods by placing
          import taxes on goods made within the zone
42. The formula that shows the correct relationship between
    I. The supply of high powered money (H)
    II. The currency (C)
    III. The money supply (M)
    IV. Required Reserves (RR)
    V. Excess Reserves (ER)
    VI. Demand deposits (D), is
    (A)M/H = D + C/C + RR + ER
    (B)H/M = D + C/C + RR + ER
    (C)M/D + C = C + RR + ER/H
    (D)H/M = C + RR + ER/D
43. Which of the following will act as the ‘lender of intermediate resort’ ?
    (A) RBI
    (B) NABARD
    (C) SBI
    (D) None of the above
44. According to Gurley and shaw, the various substitutes of currency and
      commercial bank demand deposits should be assigned different weights
      according to
    (A) their degree of replacement
    (B) their degree of substitutability
    (C) their share in the money market
    (D) their share in money supply
45. Assertion (A) : Primary financial markets deals in new financial claims.
      Reason (R) : It mobilises savings and supplies new capital to the business units.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
    (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
46. Margin requirement specified under which instruments of monetary policy ?
    (A) Variable Reserve Requirement
    (B) Statutory Liquidity Requirement
    (C) Selective Credit Controls
    (D) Open Market Operations
47. As per Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise Development Act, 2006,
      Medium Enterprises are defined as those with investments :
    (A) < 25 lakhs
    (B) 25 lakhs to 5 crores
    (C) 5 crores to 10 crores
    (D) > 10 crores
48. Theory of Industrial Location is associated with the names of
    I. Losch
    II. Weber
    III. Christaller
    IV. Lerner
    Codes :
    (A) I & II
    (B) I only
    (C) I, II and III
    (D) I, II, III and IV
49. The Committees related to industrial licensing policy are
    I. Arjun Sengupta Committee
    II. D.G. Karve Committee
    III. Subimal Dutt Committee
    IV. R.K. Hazari Committee
    Codes :
    (A) I and II
    (B) II and III
    (C) III and IV
    (D) I, II and III
50. Which Industrial Policy Resolution gave the public sector a strategic role
       in the Indian Economy ?
    (A) 1948                 (B) 1956
    (C) 1977                 (D) 1980
51. Average industrial growth rate during Tenth Plan period was
    (A) 5.3%               (B) 8.8%
    (C) 10.2%             (D) 15.3%
52. Suggest the correct choices about the nature of the Environmental
      Economics :
    I. Nature of Market failure is similar to public goods under
       public finance.
    II. Willingness to pay can be negative.
    III. It deals for items which are not used.
    IV. It deals for items which are used.
    Codes :
    (A) I, II, III & IV
    (B) I, II & III
    (C) II, III & IV
    (D) II & IV
53. Which of the following methods would be used for estimation of price
     change of a house due to either pollution or good environment like
     existence of park and scenic beauty ?
    (A) Hedonic Method
    (B) Contingent Valuation Method
    (C) Externality Effects
    (D) All of the above
54. In a life table which of the following does not fit ?
    (A) There are eight columns in a life table.
    (B) It tells the age-specific mortality rate.
    (C) Age-specific birth rate can be derived from a life table.
    (D) Age-specific life expectancy can be estimated
55. Optimum theory of population tells about the relationship between
    (A) Population and food supply
    (B) Population and overall resources
    (C) Dependent population and working population
    (D) Present population and growth rate of population
56. What is meant by ‘population neutralism’ ?
    (A) Impact of population growth on economic growth is negligible.
    (B) Growth rate of population is hovering around stationary
          population.
    (C) Impact of population growth on food supply is neutral.
    (D) Due to population growth, change in age structure is
          almost neutral.
57. What is the essence of wage goods model explained by Professor P.R.
      Brahmananda in the Indian economy context ?
    (A) It tells about low wage rate in the agriculture.
    (B) It tells about low wage rate for labour in the economy.
    (C) It tells about shift of labour from agriculture to industry.
    (D) It tells about the impact of the shortage of food items on the
          wage rate and growth rate of the economy.
58. Match the highest crop production states given in List – I with List – II
      from the given code :
              List – I                                       List – II
             (States)                          (Highest crop production)
    a. West Bengal                       1. Total course cereals
    b. Uttar Pradesh                     2. Rice
    c. Maharashtra                       3. Potato
    d. Gujarat                              4. Groundnut
    Codes :
          a b c d
    (A) 2 3 1 4
    (B) 3 2 1 4
    (C) 4 2 3 1
    (D) 1 3 4 2
59. About minimum support price, find out the correct combinations :
    I. If market price is higher, farmers will sell to the government.
    II. It ensures minimum assured price for the produce of the farmers.
    III. It helps in food security mission.
    IV. This is highly rewarding to farmers because they earn huge
          profits on their produce.
    Codes :
    (A) I, II & IV                  (B) II, III & IV
    (C) II & III                      (D) II & IV
60. Which of the followings have been important in growth of rice and wheat
       output in India after initiating green revolution programme ?
     I. Changes in cropping pattern
     II. Improved yields
    III. Crop insurance
    IV. Increased area under cultivation
    Codes :
    (A) II, III & IV               (B) I, II & IV
    (C) I, II & III                  (D) I, III & IV
61. ‘Green agriculture’ involves
    (A) organic farming and emphasis on horticulture
    (B) avoiding pesticides, chemical fertilizers while focussing on
          horticulture and floriculture
    (C) integrated pest management, integrated nutrient supply and
          integrated natural resource management
    (D) emphasis on food crops, horticulture and floriculture
62. The average cost function is given as
     AC = 1/3χ ² – 10 x + 9. The level of output at which average cost is equal
     to marginal cost is :
    (A) 18              (B) 12
    (C) 15              (D) 21
63. The demand and supply functions are given as : Pα = 30 – 5 x and
      Ps = 3 x– 10 respectively ( x = quantity). The consumer surplus is
     (A) 125               (B) – 62.5
     (C) 62.5              (D) –125
64. The linear programming problem specified as
    Max : Z = 3x 1 + 5x 2 + 10x 3
    Sub to: x 1 + x 2 + x 3 ≤ 100
               9x 1 + x 2 + 8x 3 ≤ 95
                x 1 + 8x 2 + 3x 3 ≤ 60
                2x 1 + 7x 2 + x 3 ≤ 150
    and x 1≥  0, x 2 < 0 and x 3 > 0 has
    (A) a feasible solution
    (B) an optimal solution
    (C) multiple solutions
    (D) no solutions
65. The estimated regression equation of a firm producing scooter tyres is :
       ln y = – 3.56 + 0.31 ln X1 – 0.05 ln X2 + 0.53 ln X3 + 0.37 ln X4,ü
      –R 2 = 0.89 (Y = output and X1 to X4 are factor inputs).
     Assuming that all the estimated parameters are statistically
     significant from zero, the firm has
    (A) constant returns to scale
    (B) decreasing returns to scale
    (C) increasing returns to scale
    (D) neutral returns to scale
66. The test statistic used to test the significance of the adjusted
     coefficient of multiple determination ( –R2) is :
    (A) t–test            (B) Z–test
    (C) χ ² –test         (D) F–test
67. Given that the CES production function as :
     Y = A[αL–β + (1 –α ) K–β] – γ β
     Match List – I with List – II and select the answer from the codes
     given below :
                List – I                       List – II
    a. A                              1. Factor intensity
    b. α                               2. Elasticity of substitution
    c. β                               3. Factor homogeneity
    d. γ                               4. Efficiency parameter
    Codes :
           a b c d
    (A) 1 4 2 3
    (B) 2 4 1 3
    (C) 1 2 3 4
    (D) 1 4 3 2
68. The technique used to estimate the over-identified system of
      simultaneous equations is
    (A) ordinary least squares
    (B) maximum likelihood
    (C) limited information maximum likelihood
    (D) two stage least squares
69. Which of the following assumptions are required to show the consistency,
       unbiasedness and efficiency of the OLS estimates
    I. E (νt) = 0
    II. Var (νt) = s2
    III. cov (νt, νt – j) = 0 for all values of j ¹ 0
    IV. νt ~ N(0, σ2)
     Codes :
    (A) II and IV only.
    (B) I and III only.
    (C) I, II and III only.
    (D) All the above four
70. The sources of auto correlation among the following are :
    I. Omitted explanatory variables
    II. Interpolation in the statistical observation
    III. Mis-specification of the true random term ‘n’
    IV. Economic variables to move together over time
    Codes :
    (A) I and II only
    (B) I, II and III only
    (C) I, III and IV only
    (D) All of the above
71. Arrange the following sub-sectors of the services sector of the Indian
      economy in ascending order of their contributions to the GDP in recent
      years :
    I. Trade, hotels and restaurants
    II. Transport, storage and communication
    III. Financing, insurance, real estate and business services
    IV. Community, social and personal services
    Codes :
    (A) I, II, III, IV
    (B) II, IV, III, I
    (C) II, I, III, IV
    (D) I, III, IV, II
72. Which of the following can be linked with those providing method for
      estimating black money in India ?
    I. Kaldor’s approach
    II. NIPFP method
    III. O.P. Chopra’s method
    IV. Arjun Sengupta
    Codes :
    (A) I, II & III
    (B) II, III & IV
    (C) I, III & IV
    (D) I & II
73. What is the share of single lane/intermediate lane in the total
      length of National Highways ?
    (A) 12 percent              (B) 15 percent
    (C) 22 percent              (D) 29 percent
74. During which year, gross domestic savings of the public sector turned
      negative in the Indian economy ?
    I. 1990 – 91
    II. 1995 – 96
    III. 1999 – 2000
    IV. 2002 – 2003
    Codes :0
    (A) I and II             (B) II and ü III
    (C) III and IV         (D) I and IV
75. What has been the projected investment ratio for the infrastructure
      development for the Eleventh Five Year Plan of India ?
    (A) 5.43 percent
    (B) 6.53 percent
    (C) 7.60 percent
    (D) 9.34 percent