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Monday, 22 September 2014

UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED ECONOMICS PAPER II

                       LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAL
                           UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED ECONOMICS PAPER II
01. Who distinguished between value in use and value in exchange and gave
      the famous example of diamonds and water ?
    (A) Adam Smith
    (B) David Ricardo
    (C) Alfred Marshall
    (D) Karl Marx
02. In an economy of two individuals A and B and two commodities X and
      Y, general equilibrium of production and exchange occurs when
    (A) MRTXY = PX/PY
    (B) MRSXY for A and B = PX/PY
    (C) MRS A XY = MRS B XY
    (D) MRTXY = MRS A XY = MRS B XY
03. When income effect becomes stronger than substitution effect, the
     labour supply curve will
    (A) Slope positively
    (B) Negatively sloped
    (C) Bend backward
    (D) Slope upwards
04. Assertion (A) : The concept of supply curve is meaningless for
      the monopolist.
      Reason (R) : Monopolists are price setters; it does not make reuse
      to ask what output they will produce at various prices.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
          explanation of (A).

    (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
    (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct
          explanation of (A).
    (D) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.
05. Predatory pricing policy is designed to
    (A) drive competitors out of business
    (B) maximise profits
    (C) encourage entrants into the market
    (D) attain least cost output
06. Match items in List – I with items in List – II and select the
     correct answer from the code given below :
              List – I                            List – II
    a. The Screening
        Hypothesis                      1. George A. Akerlof
    b. Job Market
        Signalling                         2. K.J. Arrow
    c. The problem
        of moral
        hazard in the
       case of
       medical insurance             3. M. Spencer
    d. The market
        for lemons                       4. Paul W. Miller and Paul A.
                                                   Volcker
    Codes :
          a b c d
    (A) 3 2 4 1
    (B) 2 3 4 1
    (C) 4 3 2 1
    (D) 2 4 3 1
07. An industry whose long run supply curve is horizontal is called
    (A) Constant cost industry
    (B) Increasing Cost Industry
    (C) Decreasing Cost Industry
    (D) Efficient Industry
08. The practice of charging each consumer the reservation price is
      called
    (A) Peak load pricing
    (B) Inter-temporal price discrimination
    (C) First degree price discrimination
    (D) Third degree price discrimination
09. Frictional unemployment is also known as
    (A) Disguised unemployment
    (B) Turnover unemployment
    (C) Cyclical unemployment
    (D) Structural unemployment
10. Arrange in ascending chronological order the following consumption
      hypotheses in which they appeared in the economics literature :
    (1) Absolute increase hypothesis
    (2) Permanent increase hypothesis
    (3) Life cycle hypothesis
    (4) Relative increase hypothesis
    Codes :
    (A) 1, 3, 4, 2             (B) 1, 2, 4, 3
    (C) 1, 4, 3, 2             (D) 1, 3, 2, 4
11. Assume a model of income determination of the following type :
    C = a + b · Yd
    Yd = Y – T
    T = T0 + t1 · Y
    I = –I
    G = –G
    Y = C + I + G
    Where C = Consumption expenditure; Y = income; Yd = disposable income;
     T = taxes; T0 = Tan, when Y = 0; t1 = marginal tax rate; I = investment
     expenditure; G = Government expenditure; and bar ‘–’ as the variable
     indicates that these autonomous variables. Then the
     tax multiples with respect to T0 is :
    (A) 1/1 – b + bt1
    (B) – b/1 – b + bt1
    (C) 1 – b/1 – b – bt1
    (D) 1/1 – b – bt1
12. Which of the following components of aggregate demand is selfterminating
      and self-financing ?
    (A) Investment expenditure
    (B) Durable consumption expenditure
    (C) Non-durable consumption expenditure
    (D) Government expenditure
13. Arrange all the four concepts of money supply M1, M2, M3 and M4 in
      the ascending order in terms of their liquidity :
    (A) M3, M2, M1 andü M4
    (B) M1, M2, M3 and M4
    (C) M4, M2, M3 and M1
    (D) M4, M3, M2 and M1
14. Who amongst the following economists imparted money demand
      of a portfolio theory approach ?
    (1) J.M. Keynes
    (2) Baumol
    (3) James Tobin
    (4) Milton Friedman
    Codes :
    (A) 1, 2              (B) 3, 4
    (C) 1, 2, 3          (D) 2, 3, 4
15. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of the Phillips
       curve ?
    (A) The Price expectations are adaptive
    (B) The unemployment rate, when money wage stabilises, is 5½
          percent
    (C) The price expectations are static
    (D) there is a loop around Phillips curve
16. The crowding out effect is zero when
    (A) there is liquidity trap, or investment is perfectly interest
          inelastic

    (B) money demand is perfectly interest inelastic, or investment
          is perfectly interest elastic
    (C) IS curve is falling and LM curve is rising
    (D) None of the above
17. Meeting the needs of present generation without compromising the
      needs of future generation is
    (A) Economic Development
    (B) Social Development
    (C) Sustainable Development
    (D) Economic Growth
18. The full capacity growth rate in Harrod-Domar Model is also known as
    (A) Actual growth rate
    (B) Warranted growth rate
    (C) Natural growth rate
    (D) Expected growth rate
19. Inventors of HDI are
    I. Harris-Todaro
    II. Megnad Desai
    III. Robert Solow
    IV. Amartya Sen
    Codes :
    (A) I and II are correct.
    (B) I and III are correct.
    (C) III and IV are correct.
    (D) II and IV are correct.
20. Components of PQLI
    I. Morbidity
    II. Infant mortality
    III. Life expectancy at age one
    IV. Basic literacy at age 15
    Codes :
    (A) I, III and IV are correct.
    (B) III, II and IV are correct.
    (C) I, II and III are correct.
    (D) IV, I and II are correct.
21. Assertion (A) : All historical events are the results of continuous
                             economic struggle between different classes and groups in
                             society.
     Reason (R) : The main cause of this struggle is the conflict between
                         the ‘mode of production’ and the ‘relations of production’.
    Codes :
    (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
    (B) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
    (C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
22. Match the items given in List – I with those in List – II :
                 List – I                                    List – II
    a. Swarm-likeclusters                 1. Brundtland Report
    b. Organic composition
       of capital                                2. Ragner Nurkse
    c. Sustainable Development       3. Schumpeter
    d. Vicious circle of poverty        4. Karl Marx
    Codes :
          a b c d
    (A) 4 2 3 1
    (B) 3 4 1 2
    (C) 1 3 2 4
    (D) 2 1 4 3
23. Match the items given in List – I with those in List – II :
         List – I                                 List - II
    a. Low level
       equilibrium trap              1. Simon Kuznets
    b. Inverted ‘V’ shaped
        income distribution
        hypothesis                     2. Nelson
    c. Endogenous growth
       theory                            3. Arthur Lewis
    d. Unlimited supplies
       of labour                        4. Robert Solow
    Codes :
          a b c d
    (A) 2 1 4 3
    (B) 3 2 1 4
    (C) 4 3 2 1
    (D) 1 4 3 2
24. Which of the following is correct about the ‘Hindu Growth Rate’ ?
    (A) This is about economic growth of the Hindu population.
    (B) Shows economic disparities among different social groups
          in India.
    (C) Reflects low growth performance of the Indian
          economy during 1950-80.

    (D) Hints at accelerated growth in India since 1980
25. Find out the incorrect statement about the success of economic
      reforms in India.
    (A) Benefits of demographic dividends
    (B) Increased share of the corporate sector in Gross Domestic Savings
    (C) Narrowing down of the current account deficit
    (D) Slow down of population growth rate
26. Single out the activity that is not included in the Industrial Production
      Index of India :
    (A) Manufacturing
    (B) Construction
    (C) Mining
    (D) Electricity
27. High growth of which industry provides a positive signal for
      industrial growth in future ?
    (A) Capital goods industries
    (B) Basic goods industries
    (C) Durable consumer goods industries
    (D) Intermediate goods industries
28. Identify the method not being used for unemployment estimation by the
      NSSO in India.
    (A) Current monthly status
    (B) Current daily status
    (C) Current weekly status
    (D) Usual principal and subsidiary status
29. The process of budget making after reevaluating every item of
      expenditure in every financial year is known as
    (A) Performance Budgeting
    (B) Fresh Budgeting
    (C) Debit Budgeting
    (D) Zero Based Budgeting
30. Rank the states in terms of ascending Human Development Index
      (HDI) as per India Human Development Report 2011 :
    I. Bihar
    II. Gujarat
    III. Odisha
    IV. Tamil Nadu
    Codes :
    (A) I, II, III, IV            (B) III, I, II, IV
    (C) I, III, IV, II            (D) III, II, I, IV
31. A difference in relative commodity prices between two nations can be
      based upon a difference in
    (A) factor endowment
    (B) technology
    (C) tastes
    (D) All of the above
32. Which type of trade is not explained by the Heckscher-Ohlin model ?
    (A) Trade based on economies of scale
    (B) Intra industry trade
    (C) Trade based on imitation gaps and product cycles
    (D) All of the above
33. An example of a Euro currency is
    (A) a dollar deposit outside the U.S.
    (B) a pound sterling deposit within UK
    (C) a mark deposit with Germany
    (D) All of the above
34. A deficit or surplus in the India’s balance of payments is measured by
      the net balance of
    (A) the current account
    (B) the capital account
    (C) allocation of SDRs and the statistical discrepancy
    (D) All of the above
35. If the demand of the domestic consumers is infinitely elastic and the
      supply of the foreign producer is perfectly inelastic, then the whole of
      the tariff will
    (A) be paid by the domestic consumers
    (B) be paid by the foreign producer
    (C) be equally shared by the domestic consumers and the
          foreign producer
    (D) yield neither revenue nor protection to either of them
36. The RBI made Indian Rupee fully convertible in current account
      transactions related to goods and services in the year
    (A) 1985            (B) 2002
    (C) 1994            (D) 2011
37. According to the monetary approach, a revaluation of a nation’s currency
    (A) increases the nation’s demand for money
    (B) increases the nation’s supply of money
    (C) reduces the nation’s demand for money
    (D) reduces the nation’s supply of money
38. Arrange the following in chronological order :
    I. Sarkar Award
    II. Niemeyer Award
    III. Deshmukh Award
    IV. Meston Award
   Codes :
    (A) II, IV, III, I             (B) IV, III, II, I
    (C) III, II, IV, I             (D) IV, II, I, III
39. In which of the following, Zero Based Budgeting is difficult to
      introduce ?
    I. Establishment charges
    II. Public works
    III. Irrigation Projects
    IV. Federal fiscal transfers
    Codes :
    (A) I, III and IV are correct.
    (B) II, III and IV are correct.
    (C) I and IV are correct.
    (D) II and III are correct.
40. Match the items given in List – I with those in List – II :
          List – I                       List – II
    a. Theory of Clubs            1. Anthony Downs
    b. Impossibility theorem    2. Charles Tiebout
    c. Political of Decision
       Making Model               3. James Buchanan
    d. Optimum
        provision of
        local public
        goods                           4. Kenneth Arrow
    Codes :
          a b c d
    (A) 3 1 2 4
    (B) 3 4 2 1
    (C) 2 3 4 1
    (D) 3 4 1 2
41. Which of the following tax has ‘announcement effect’ ?
    (A) Income tax
    (B) Property tax
    (C) Excise Duties
    (D) Capital gains taxation
42. Which of the following tax is within the jurisdiction of Union or Central
      Government as enumerated in List – I of Schedule VII of the India
      Constitution ?
    (A) Taxes on the consumption and sale of electricity.
    (B) Taxes on goods and passengers carried by road.
    (C) Taxes on luxuries, including entertainments.
    (D) Taxes on Sales and purchase of newspapers and on
          advertisement therein.

43. A tax imposed on a commodity according to its weight, size or
      measurement is called
    (A) Advalorem tax
    (B) Specific tax
    (C) Single tax
    (D) Double taxation
44. Which of the following is Musgrave’s views on incidence of taxation ?
    (A) Settlement of tax on ultimate tax payer.
    (B) Formal and effective incidence of taxation.
    (C) Changes in the distribution of income for private use arising
          from changes in budget policy.

    (D) The final direct money burden of a tax.
45. Given arithmetic mean = 45, mode = 48, then median =
    (A) 46
    (B) 45
    (C) 48
    (D) 49
46. If two events A and B are mutually inclusive, then P(A or B) is
    (A) P(A) + P(B) – P(AB)
    (B) P(A) + P(B) + P(AB)
    (C) P(A) + P(B)
    (D) P(A) P(B)
47. The analysis of variance is carried out by using
    (A) t-test
    (B) Z-test
    (C) c2-test
    (D) F-test
48. Systematic sampling implies that the first item is selected randomly and
    (A) the other items are selected by lottery method
    (B) the other items are selected purposively
    (C) then every kth item is selected
    (D) the other items are selected at the will of the investigator
49. Given the following information match the item in List – I with List – II :
        List – I                                      List – II
    a. Rejecting H0, if it is true         1. b error
    b. Accepting H0, if it is false       2. Standard error
    c. Probability of rejecting H0,
        when it is false                        3. a error
    d. Measuring sampling
        variability due to
        random force                          4. 1 – b error
    Codes :
          a b c d
    (A) 3 1 2 4
    (B) 2 1 4 3
    (C) 2 4 1 3
    (D) 3 1 4 2
50. Assertion (A) : Geometric mean is theoretically considered as the
                              best average to construct index numbers.
      Reason (R) : Geometric mean is used if the range of
                          observations is extremely large.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Monday, 8 September 2014

UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED COMMERCE PAPER III

                       LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAL
                             UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED COMMERCE PAPER III
 01. The Competition Act, 2002, seeks to regulate
    (A) Anti-competitive agreements
    (B) Mergers and amalgamation
    (C) Unfair trade practices
    (D) (A) and (B) above
02. Indicate the true statement :
    (A) Large industrial houses are outside the purriew of the
          Competition Act, 2002
    (B) There is no provision for curbing frivolous complaints
           under the CPA.
    (C) The Trade Marks Act, 1999 does not apply to services.
    (D) All of the above are true.
03. The time limit for filing a complaints before the District forum under the
      Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is
    (A) one year
    (B) two years
    (C) three years
    (D) There is no such time limit.
04. The Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) revamps the rules and
      regulations pertaining to
    (A) Accounting of Foreign Investment
    (B) Investment by NRIs
    (C) Foreign investments
    (D) All of the above
05. Which of the legislation(s) do (does) not form part of the legal
      environment of business in India ?
    (A) The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
    (B) The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
    (C) The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969
    (D) Both (B) and (C) above
06. What is the underlying concept that support the immediate recognition of
      an estimated loss ?
    (A) Substance over form
    (B) Consistency
    (C) Matching
    (D) Prudence
07. Which is not the limitation of budgetary control ?
    (A) Budgets are based on forecasts which may not be true
    (B) Installation and operation of a system of budgetary control is costly.
    (C) Budget is a tool of management and not a substitute of management
    (D) Budgets do not pinpoint the lack of efficiency or the presence of it.
08. Profit volume ratio of an enterprise is 40%. To offset 10% decrease in
      selling price, how much sales must be increased ?
    (A) 10%                  (B) 20%
    (C) 25%                  (D) 40%
09. If debt is ` 220, cash balance is ` 20 and equity is ` 300, then the gearing
      ratio is
    (A) 20%               (B) 40%
    (C) 50%               (D) 30%
10. Responsibility accounting aims to
    (A) ensure that a manager is punished if things go wrong.
    (B) ensure that costs become the responsibility of a specific manager.
    (C) allocate costs to all areas of a business.
    (D) reduce the costs that a department incurs.
11. Find the correct matching of the items of List – I with the items of
      List – II given below :
              List – I                                 List – II
    (a) Normal Profit                   (I) Excess of total revenue over total
                                                      explicit cost
    (b) Economic profit               (II) Total revenue equals total economic cost
    (c) Accounting profit             (III) Excess of total revenue over total of
                                                       explicit and implicit costs and a
                                                       normal rate of return
    Codes :
             (I)   (II) (III)
    (A)   (c)   (a)   (b)
    (B)   (b)   (a)   (c)
    (C)   (a)   (b)   (c)
    (D)   (a)   (c)   (b)
12. Assertion (A) : A monopoly firm’s revenue curve is downward
                             sloping from left to right.
      Reason (R) : The monopoly firm does not simultaneously enjoy
                           the freedom to determine both price and quantity to be sold
                           according to its whims and fancy.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
    (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
13. The equilibrium level of output for a perfect competitive firm is given by
      the point where :
    (A) MR = MC
    (B) MR < MC
    (C) MR > MC
    (D) MR = MC, and MC starts rising.
14. Match the following :
             List – I                                     List – II
    (i) Dumping                    (a) Monopolistic competitive firm
    (ii) Kinked Revenue
        Curve                         (b) Oligopoly firm
    (iii) Horizontal
          straight line
          revenue curve            (c) Perfectively competitive firm
    (iv) Large number
          of buyers and
          sellers with
          differentiated
          products                     (d) Discriminatory monopoly
    Codes :
           (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    (A) (a) (d) (c) (b)
    (B) (b) (d) (a) (c)
    (C) (d) (b) (c) (a)
    (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)
15. Penetrating pricing strategy is appropriate when
    (A) price elasticity of demand in the market is highly inelastic.
    (B) price elasticity of demand in the market is uncertain.
    (C) price elasticity of demand in the market is highly elastic.
    (D) income elasticity of demand in the market is negatively elastic.
16. Assertion (A) : The expected values should be atleast 5 to apply the
                              chi-square test.
      Reason (R) : The chi-square distribution provides an adequate approximation
                          of the sampling distribution.
    Indicate the correct answer from the following :
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the right explanation.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
    (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
17. In a decision problem having four possible alternative decisions and six
      possible states of nature, the pay-off table will include
    (A) Four payoffs
    (B) Six payoffs
    (C) Twenty four payoff
    (D) Ten payoff
18. The mathematical formula for joint probabilities P(AB) = P(A/B) × P(B),
       holds when
    (A) The events are statistically independent.
    (B) The events are statistically dependent.
    (C) The event is either independent or dependent.
    (D) None of the above
19. Which one of the following statements is the correct interpretation of P-value
      of less than 0.01 in hypothesis testing ?
    (A) There is overwhelming evidence to infer that the
          alternative hypothesis is true.

    (B) There is strong evidence to infer that the alternative hypothesis is true.
    (C) There is weak evidence to indicate that the alternative hypothesis is true.
    (D) There is no evidence to infer that the alternative hypothesis is true.
20. Two lists of items are given below :
                List – I                                      List – II
    (i) Charles Babbage                         (a) Mossai
    (ii) Herbert A. Simon                       (b) HTML
    (iii) Tim Berners Lee                        (c) Computer Design
    (iv) Maarc Andreessen                    (d) Decision model
    Which one of the following is the correct match ?
    Codes :
           (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    (A) (c) (b) (a) (d)
    (B) (a) (c) (d) (b)
    (C) (b) (a) (c) (d)
    (D) (c) (d) (b) (a)
21. Which of the following statements are true about informal organization ?
    1. It arises spontaneously.
    2. It reflects individual and group goals.
    3. It tends to be permanent and stable.
    4. It tends to be small and manageable.
    5. Its basic purpose is to improve human relations.
    6. Its basic purpose is to achieve organizations goals.
    Codes :
    (A) 1, 2, 3 and 5
    (B) 1, 2, 4 and 6
    (C) 1, 2, 4 and 5
    (D) 2, 3, 5 and 6
22. Which of the following is not true about an employee-centered leader as
       identified by Michigan researchers ?
    (A) Treats subordinates as human beings.
    (B) Shows concern for their well being.
    (C) Focuses on work standards and close supervision.
    (D) Encourages and involves them in goal setting.
23. According to Talcott Parson, organizations can be classified
      primarily into four categories, based on functions. Which of the following
      is not an organization in Parson’s scheme ?
    (A) Political organizations
    (B) Integrative organizations
    (C) Pattern maintenance organizations
    (D) Commercial organizations
24. An MBO programme usually involves the following steps :
    1. Establishing unit’s objectives
    2. Establishing organizational goals
    3. Negotiating or agreeing
    4. Reviewing the performance
    5. Creating action plans
    Indicate the correct sequence of the above steps from the following codes :
    (A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
    (B) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
    (C) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
    (D) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
25. Match the following :
            List – I                               List – II
    (a) Fayol                               (1) Economy and Society
    (b) Taylor                              (2) General and Industrial Administration
    (c) Weber                              (3) Principles of Organization
    (d) Mooney and Reilly           (4) Shop Management
    Codes :
           (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) (3) (4) (1) (2)
    (B) (2) (4) (1) (3)
    (C) (1) (3) (2) (4)
    (D) (4) (3) (2) (1)
26. A primary group influencing the buyer behaviour is a
    (A) Family
    (B) Professional association
    (C) Religious group
    (D) Trade Union
27. After conducting the business analysis for developing a new
      product, a company must do
    (A) Idea generation
    (B) Product positioning
    (C) Product development and testing
    (D) Test marketing
28. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II :
               List – I                        List – II
    (a) Post purchase
         behaviour                        (i) AIDA
    (b) Personal selling               (ii) ACMEE
    (c) Everitt M. Rogers           (iii) Diffusion of Innovation
    (d) Salesperson training        (iv) Cognitive dissonance
    Indicate the correct matching :
     Codes :
          (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    (B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
    (C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
    (D) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
29. Which type of retail stores generally has the highest operating costs ?
    (A) Department store
    (B) Supermarket
    (C) Chain store
    (D) Co-operative Store
30. Indicate the correct statement :
    (A) India has been a pioneer in social marketing.
    (B) Advertising Standards Council of India is a statutory body set
          up by the government of India.
    (C) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
    (D) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
31. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II :
              List – I                                         List – II
    (a) Trade credit and other
          payables that arise in the
          firm’s day today operations              (i) Maturity Financing
    (b) Financing and asset needs
         over time                                          (ii) Factoring
    (c) A tool for accelerating
         the collection from the customers      (iii) Spontaneous financing
    (d) Seeking financial service to
         finance on its debtors’ balances         (iv) Lock box system
    Codes :
           (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
    (B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
    (C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
    (D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
32. Indicate the cost of equity capital, based on capital asset pricing model,
      with the following information : Beta coefficient – 1.40
      Risk-free rate of interest – 9% Expected Rate of Return on
      equity in the market – 16%
    (A) 9.8%                  (B) 18%
    (C) 18.8%                (D) 16%
33. The degree of super-leverage would be calculated by :
    (A) Adding DOL (Degree of Operating Leverage) and DFL
          (Degree of Financial Leverage)
    (B) Dividing DOL with DFL
    (C) Multiplying DOL and DFL
    (D) Subtracting DOL from DFL
34. Interim cash inflows are reinvested at a rate of return equal to the internal
      rate of return is the built-in mechanism for
    (A) Net Present Value Method
    (B) Internal Rate of Return Method
    (C) Profitability Index Method
    (D) None of the above
35. Who formulated the following model for estimating the market price of
      equity share ?
       P = D +Ra/Rc (E -D)/Rc
    Where, P = Market price of equity share
    D = DPS
    E = EPS
    E – D = Retained earning per share
    Ra = Internal rate of return on investment
    Rc = Cost of capital
    (A) Modigliani-Miller
    (B) Myron-Gordon
    (C) James E. Walter
    (D) Clarkson and Elliot
36. Indicate the quantitative methods of job evaluation
    (A) Ranking methods and Job comparison method
    (B) Point rating method and Factor comparison method
    (C) Grading method and Job classification method
    (D) Factor comparison method and Ranking method
37. Match the items of List – I with those List – II :
               List – I                          List – II
    (1) Career goals                 (a) The process where in an executive
                                                   serves as a guide
    (2) Career path                  (b) The future positions one strives to reach
                                                    as part of career
    (3) Career counseling         (c) The sequential pattern of jobs that form a
                                                   career
    (4) Mentoring                     (d) Guiding people on their possible career
                                                    path
    Codes :
          (1) (2) (3) (4)
    (A) (b) (c) (d) (a)
    (B) (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (C) (d) (c) (b) (a)
    (D) (c) (b) (a) (d)
38. The process of receiving and welcoming an employee when he
      first joins a company and giving him the basic information he needs to
      settle down quickly and happily and starts working, is referred to as
    (A) Placement
    (B) Orientation
    (C) Job Rotation
    (D) Counseling
39. Which is not relevant of succession planning ?
    (A) Analysis of the demand for managers
    (B) Review of existing executives
    (C) Planning individuals career paths
    (D) Recruitment to meet immediate needs
40. Where does recognition of an Employee fall in Maslow’s hierarchy
      of needs theory ?
    (A) Self-actualisation
    (B) Security needs
    (C) Social needs
    (D) Esteem needs
41. The profitability of public-sector banks is low due to
    (i) Over-cautions approach to lending
    (ii) Reserve Bank Policies
    (iii) High Overhead Costs
    (iv) Social-sector lending
    Identify the correct code :
    Codes :
    (A) (i) and (ii)
    (B) (i) and (iv)
    (C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
    (D) (ii) and (iii)
42. Match the items of List – I with those List – II and select correct answer :
                List – I                                List – II
    (1) Narasimham Committee        (a) Lending under consortium
                                                           arrangement
    (2) Shetty Committee                  (b) Frauds and Malpractices in banks
    (3) Ghosh Committee                  (c) Securities operations of banks and financial
                                                            institutions
    (4) Janakiraman Committee         (d) Financial system in India
    Codes :
           (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) (3) (4) (2) (1)
    (B) (2) (3) (4) (1)
    (C) (4) (2) (3) (1)
    (D) (3) (4) (1) (2)
43. Which of the following financial institutions is not with in the supervisory Purview
      of Reserve Bank of India ?
    (A) Foreign Commercial Banks Operating in India
    (B) Regional Rural Banks
    (C) Mutual Funds
    (D) State Co-operative Banks
44. The Repo and Reserve Repo rates are resorted to by the RBI as a tool of
    (A) Credit Control
    (B) Settlement Systems
    (C) Currency Management
    (D) Liquidity Control
45. Which one of the following institutions is promoted by the IFCI :
    (A) Credit Analysis and Research Ltd (CARE)
    (B) Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Nidhi (RGVN)
    (C) Clearing Corporation of India Ltd (CCIL)
    (D) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
46. Indicate the right sequence of the stages of internationalization :
    (i) Multinational Company
    (ii) Global Company
    (iii) Transnational Company
    (iv) International Company
    Codes :
    (A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
    (B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
    (C) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
    (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
47. Which of the following is not one of the components of ‘International
      Reserve’ ?
    (A) Special Drawing Rights
    (B) Reserve Position in IMF
    (C) Monetary Gold
    (D) Money Market Instruments
48. Match the items given in List – I with the most appropriate items in List – II :
                    List – I                              List – II
    (a) UNCTAD                              (i) Foreign investment
    (b) WTO                                     (ii) Developing Countries
    (c) TRIMS                                  (iii) UNDP
    (d) ITC                                       (iv) General Council
    Codes :
          (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
    (B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
    (C) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
    (D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
49. Duty levied on the value of goods imported is referred to as
    (A) Ad valorem Duty
    (B) Compound Duty
    (C) Specific Duty
    (D) Import Duty
50. Which of the following can be included in the current account of the
      balance of payments ?
    (i) Purchase of goods from abroad
    (ii) Sale of services abroad
    (iii) Workers’ remittances from aboard
    (iv) Sale of copyright to foreigners
    (v) Direct investment in equity capital
    Codes :
    (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
    (B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
    (C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
    (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
51. Which of the following items would be specifically included in the
       statement of cash flows constructed in compliance with AS-3 ?
    (A) Conversion of debt to equity
    (B) Acquiring an asset through lease
    (C) Operating and non-operating cash flow information
    (D) Purchasing a building by giving a mortgage to the seller
52. Fixing the value of an employee depending upon his productivity,
      promotability, transferability and retainability is the core of the
    (A) Certainty equivalent model
    (B) Stochastic Reward Valuation model
    (C) Human asset multiplier model
    (D) Present value of future earnings model
53. Which of the following refers to a situation in which the merger of
      companies results in over 25% of the market in the hands of the merged
      companies ?
    (A) ‘Gateway’ condition
    (B) Restrictive practice
    (C) ‘Share of supply’ test
    (D) ‘Asset’ test
54. Which of the following is true ?
    (A) Systematic risk is diversifiable but unsystematic risk is nondiversifiable.
    (B) Systematic risk is nondiversifiable but unsystematic risk is diversifiable.
    (C) Both systematic and unsystematic risks are  diversifiable.
    (D) Both systematic and unsystematic risks are nondiversifiable.
55. Match the following :
           List – I                                         List – II
     (Explanation)                                       (Term)
    (a) It involves using
         the version of
         master file and
         the update
         transactions used
         to create the
         current file to recreate
         the current
         master file if it
         becomes
        damaged.                              (1) Audit Trail Controls
    (b) It involves
         copying the
         whole or a
         portion of the
        database to some
        back up medium, typically
        magnetics tape.                      (2) Dumping
    (c) It stores current
         and historical
        data extracted
        from various
        operations
        systems and
        consolidates for
        management
        reporting and analysis.            (3) Grandfather, Father, Son
    (d) It maintains the
        chronology of
        events that occur
        either to the
        database
        definition or the
        database itself.                       (4) Data warehouse for Accounting
    Codes :
           (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) (3) (2) (4) (1)
    (B) (3) (1) (2) (4)
    (C) (1) (3) (2) (4)
    (D) (4) (3) (2) (1)
56. Which one is not a major component of holistic marketing ?
    (A) Relationship marketing
    (B) Integrated marketing
    (C) Internal marketing
    (D) Socially responsible marketing
57. The final step in target marketing is
    (A) Market Analysis
    (B) Market Positioning
    (C) Market Segmentation
    (D) Market Targeting
58. The most recent consideration in product packaging is
    (A) Cost effectiveness
    (B) Product protection
    (C) Product promotion
    (D) Economy
59. Distribution logistics (also termed as ‘market logistics’) does not include
    (A) Distribution channel
    (B) Inventory
    (C) Transportation
    (D) Warehouses
60. Most of the money spent in measuring the effectiveness of advertising is spent on
    (A) Communication-response research
    (B) Pre-testing the advertisements
    (C) Post-testing the advertisements
    (D) Sales-response research
61. Which of the following is not included in the model of the systems
       approach to human resource management ?
    (A) Departmentation
    (B) Recruitment
    (C) Performance Appraisal
    (D) Promotion
62. Which one of the following is not an example of Herzberg’s hygiene factors ?
    (A) Advancement
    (B) Interpersonal relations
    (C) Job security
    (D) Work conditions
63. Which of the following two forms of collective bargaining were identified
       by Chamberlain and Kuhn ?
    (A) Integrative Bargaining and Distributive Bargaining
    (B) Conjunctive Bargaining and Cooperative Bargaining
    (C) Integrative Bargaining and Cooperative Bargaining
    (D) Distributive Bargaining and Conjunctive Bargaining
64. Who observed that a worker’s behaviour and sentiments are closely related ?
    (A) Peter Drucker                  (B) Elton Mayo
    (C) F.W. Taylor                      (D) Dale Yoder
65. What is not an operative function of HRM ?
    (A) Procurement
    (B) Development
    (C) Organising
    (D) Integration
66. The total number of Special Economic Zones notified by the
      Government of India till March 2011 under the SEZ Act, 2005 is
    (A) 154                 (B) 184
    (C) 286                 (D) 386
67. The different forms of IMF assistance are given below. Identify
      the one which is mainly meant for Less Developed Countries (LDCs)
    (A) Credit Tranche Drawing
    (B) Extended Fund Facility
    (C) Compensatory Financing Facility
    (D) Structural Adjustment Facility
68. In the context of globalization, ‘Levitt Thesis’ means
    (A) Standardisation strategy to respond to the worldwide homogenised market
           and expand the market through aggressive low pricing
    (B) Customise products to regional markets
    (C) Customise products to meet the national market
    (D) None of the above
69. Which one of the following is an internal hedging technique ?
    (A) Leading
    (B) Netting
    (C) Both (A) and (B) above
    (D) Swap
70. Business conglomerates have different names in different countries.
      Which country’s conglomerates are called ‘Chaebols’ ?
    (A) Japan
    (B) South Korea
    (C) Germany
    (D) China
71. Mr. X, a non-resident, earned ` 36,000 as interest on German Development Bonds.
     Of this, he received one-sixth in India. The amount to be included as interest for
      the computation of his Gross Total Income is
    (A) ` 36,000                 (B) ` 30,000
    (C) ` 6,000                    (D) Nil
72. Consider the following problem relating to a let-out house property :
      Municipal value – ` 60,000 Fair rent – ` 68,000 Standard rent under the Rent
      Control Act – ` 62,000 Annual Rent received – ` 65,000 The Gross Annual Value
      of the property will be
    (A) ` 68,000               (B) ` 62,000
    (C) ` 65,000               (D) ` 60,000
73. From the following, identify by the web-based financial software :
    (A) Private Equity Software
    (B) Share Accounting Software
    (C) Wealth Management Software
    (D) WINGS 2013
74. Which of the following are true in tax planning ?
    (i) It is futuristic in its approach.
    (ii) It has limited scope compared to tax management.
    (iii) The benefits arising from it are limited particularly in the short run.
    (iv) Its main objective is to reduce the tax liability.
    Codes :
    (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
    (B) (i) and (ii)
    (C) (i) and (iv)
    (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
75. The benefits of debt financing over equity financing are likely to be
      highest in which of the following situations ?
    (A) High marginal tax rates and low non-interest tax benefits
    (B) Low marginal tax rates and low non-interest tax benefits
    (C) High marginal tax rates and high non-interest tax benefits
    (D) Low marginal tax rates and high non-interest tax benefits.





Thursday, 4 September 2014

UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED COMMERCE PAPER II

                      LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAL
                           UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED  COMMERCE PAPER II
01. There is acute shortage of electricity in some of the states in India. This
       reflects a problem in which type of business environment ?
    (A) Economic
    (B) Demographic
    (C) Politico-legal
    (D) Socio-cultural
02. Match the items given in List-I and List-II.
             List – I                                   List – II
    (a) Economic liberalisation      (i) IT-enabled services
    (b) Out sourcing                     (ii) SFIO
    (c) Corporate frauds              (iii) Macro economic stability
    (d) Second generation
          reforms                            (iv) Increased competition
    Indicate the correct combination :
    Codes :
          (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    (B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
    (C) (ii) (iii)(iv) (i)
    (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
03. Which of the following is true ?
    (A) A consumer court setup under the Consumer Protection Act,
          does not have the power to punish for its contempt.

    (B) Professional services are outside the purview of the CPA.
    (C) A consumer court cannot force a person indulging in misleading advertising
          to confess his quit.
    (D) None of the above.
04. Match the items/terms given in List-I with those given in and List-II.
               List – I                              List – II
    (a) BIS                                  (i) Print Media
    (b) CERC                             (ii) Minimum support price for agricultural
                                                      products.
    (c) CACP                             (iii) Quality of manufactured products.
    (d) PCI                                 (iv) Comparative product testing.
    Indicate the correct answer :
    Codes :
            (a  ) (b) (c) (d)
    (A)  (iv)  (iii)  (ii)  (i)
    (B)   (i)   (ii)  (iii) (iv)
    (C)  (iii) (iv)  (ii)  (i)
    (D)  (ii)  (iii) (iv)  (i)
05. Which one among the following is not the salient feature of industrial
      policy since 1991 ?
    (A) Enormous expansion of the private sector.
    (B) Redefining the role of public sector.
    (C) Limited exposure of Indian industry to foreign competition.
    (D) Pruning of the list of items reserved for SSI units.
06. A, a partner in a firm, is drawing  500 regularly on the 16th of every
      month. He will have to pay interest at the given rate in a year on ` 6000 for
      the total period of
    (A) 5 months            (B) 6 months
    (C) 7 months            (D) 12 months
07. Subsequent expenditures that extend the useful life, improve the quality of
      output, or reduce operating costs of an existing asset beyond their
      originally estimated levels are
    (A) Capital expenditures
    (B) Revenue expenditures
    (C) Deferred Revenue expenditures
    (D) None of the above
08. Marginal-costing technique is useful for
    (A) Make or Buy decisions
    (B) Profit planning
    (C) Shut-down decisions
    (D) All of the above
09. Which one is not a feature ofbudgetary control ?
    (A) A tool for management control.
    (B) An instrument of delegation and authority.
    (C) An instrument for evaluating the overall performance.
    (D) A statement of budget and forecasts.
10. The Debt-Equity Ratio of a company is 2 : 1. In this relation, match the following :
               List – I                                    List – II
    (a) Issue of equity shares               1. No change on the ratio
    (b) Cash received from debtors     2. Reduce the ratio
    (c) Redemption of debentures        3. No change on the ratio
    (d) Purchased goods on credit       4. Reduce the ratio
    Codes :
           (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A)   1   2   3   4
    (B)   2   3   4   1
    (C)   1   3   4   2
    (D)   2   4   1   3
11. Which one of the following does not explain the basic nature of Business
      economics ?
    (A) Behaviour of firms in theory and practice.
    (B) Distribution theories like rent, wages and interest along with the theory of profit.
    (C) Use of the tools of economic analysis in clarifying problems
          in organising and evaluating information and in comparing
          alternative courses of action.
    (D) Integration of economic theory with business practices for the
           purpose of facilitating decision making.
12. At a point of satiety for a commodity the marginal utility is
    (A) Negative
    (B) Positive
    (C) Zero
    (D) Highly positive
13. A rectangular hyperbola shaped demand curve on all its points has
    (A) Equal slopes and equal point elasticities.
    (B) Unequal slopes and unequal point elasticities.
    (C) Unequal slopes and equal point elasticities.
    (D) Equal slopes and unequal point elasticities.
14. Assertion (A) : A perfectly competitive firm is not a price maker but is a price-taker.
      Reason (R) : The firm is interested in deciding the level of output only.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
    (C) (A) is false, while (R) is true.
    (D) (A) is true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
15. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II.
                List – I                            List – II
    (a) A market having high
         price elasticity.                     I. Skimming pricing
    (b) A market having high
          price in elasticity                 II. Differential pricing
    (c) A market having
         several segments differing
         prominently with regard to
         price elasticities of their
        demand.                               III. Penetrating pricing
    Codes :
             I      II    III
    (A)  (b),  (c) , (a)
    (B)  (a),  (b),  (c)
    (C)  (b),  (a),  (c)
    (D)  (a),  (c),  (b)
16. Which one of the following options deals with the process of making
      estimates, predictions and decisions ?
    (A) Descriptive statistics
    (B) Inferential statistics
    (C) Probability theory
    (D) None of the above
17. A hypothesis test is being performed for a process in which a Type-I error
      will be very costly, but a Type-II  error will be relatively inexpensive
      and unimportant. Which of the following would be the best choice
      for alpha (a) in this test ?
    (A) 0.10
    (B) 0.05
    (C) 0.01
    (D) 0.50
18. If the dependent variable increases as the independent variable increases in
      an estimating equation, the coefficient of correlation will be in the range
    (A) 0 to (–) 1
    (B) 0 to (–) 0
    (C) 0 to (–) 0.05
    (D) 0 to 1
19. Assertion (A) : When there is an evidence of a linear relationship between two
                              variables, it may not always mean an independent-dependent
                              relationship between the two variables.
      Reason (R) : The causal relationship between the two variables may
                          not imply a reasonable theoretical relationship between the two.
      Choose the right answer from the following statements :
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
    (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
20. Assertion (A) : User interface is most critical task in DSS design
      Reason (R) : DSS is used by outside Customers frequently.
    (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
    (C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
21. Which of the following is not true about Matrix Organisation ?
    (A) It is relatively permanent.
    (B) Its project managers authority is distributed reasonably.
    (C) There is slow information processing.
    (D) Its project heads have to share resources with functional heads.
22. Consider the following leadership styles :
    1. Telling               2. Autocratic
    3. Selling               4. Motivating
    5. Participating      6. Delegating
    7. Charismatic
    Select the four styles of leadership explained by Hersey and Blauchard.
    (A) 1, 2, 6 and 7             (B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
    (C) 1, 3, 5 and 6             (D) 4, 5, 6 and 7
23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A), and the
      other labelled as Reason (R).
      Assertion (A) : Classical organisations believed in the use of authority to achieve
                              coordination.
      Reason (R) : Classical thinkers consider organisation is an open system.
    Codes :
    (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
    (C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
24. Who has modified Maslow’s Hierarchical levels of needs and developed ERG model ?
    (A) Frederick Herzberg
    (B) David C. McClelland
    (C) Douglas McGregor
    (D) Clayton Alderfer
25. Taylor’s differential piece work plan provides that
    (A) All labourers should be assigned different amount of work.
    (B) All labourers should be put in different time-period.
    (C) Those who produce above standard should receive higher wages than those producing
           below standard.
    (D) Payment should be the same on a fixed standard.
26. Which one of the following stages of the marketing research process is most expensive ?
    (A) Data analysis
    (B) Data collection
    (C) Developing the research plan
    (D) Report writing
27. The people to adopt a new product first are called
    (A) Early adopters
    (B) First users
    (C) Initial adopters
    (D) Innovators
28. A concept in retailing that helps explain the emergence of new retailers is
      called the ______ hypothesis.
    (A) Product life cycle
    (B) Service assortment
    (C) Retail life cycle
    (D) ‘Wheel-of-retailing’
29. Manufacturers of cars and motor cycles typically seek_______ distribution.
    (A) selective
    (B) intensive
    (C) exclusive
    (D) restrictive
30. Which method of setting advertising budget is most scientific and logical ?
    (A) All-you-can afford method
    (B) Competitive parity method
    (C) Objective-and-task method
    (D) Percentage-of-sales method
31. Assertion (A) : Weighted average cost of capital should be used
                              as a hurdle rate for accepting or rejecting a capital budgeting
                              proposal.
      Reason (R) : It is because by financing in the proportions specified and
                          accepting the   project, yielding more than the weighted average
                           required  return, the firm is able to increase the market price
                          of its stock.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are false.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true.
    (C) (A) is true, while (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, while (R) is true.
32. A firm wants to know the Degree of Operating Leverage (DOL) with the following
      information :
     Current level of sales : 6000 units Break-even point sales : 4000 units
      What would be the DOL ?
    (A) 1.50
    (B) 0.67
    (C) 3.00
    (D) None of the above
33. Assertion (A) : When two or more investment proposals are mutually exclusive,
                              ranking the proposals on the basis of IRR, NPV and PI methods
                              may give contradictory results.
      Reason (R) : The contradictory results in the ranking are due to differing dimensions
                           relating to the scale of investments, cash flow patterns and project lives.
    Indicate the correct answer :
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
    (B) (A) is true, but (R) is a necessary condition, but not a sufficient condition.
    (C) Both (A) and (R) are false.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and
    (R) explains the reason sufficiently.
34. Which one of the following assumptions is not covered in the
     Walters Model of the dividend policy ?
    (A) All financing is done through retained earnings.
    (B) Firm’s business risk does not change due to additional investments.
    (C) The firm has an infinite life.
    (D) The key variables like EPS and DPS keep on changing.
35. Which one of the following emphasizes the qualitative aspects of working capital management ?
    (A) Gross working capital
    (B) Quick working capital
    (C) Net working capital
    (D) None of the above
36. Which of the following training methods exposes the newly recruited
      employee to the various business functions, divisions and departments ?
    (A) Orientation
    (B) Vestibule Training
    (C) Transition Analysis
    (D) Role playing
37. Match the names of the Authors given below with the motivational
      theories they are associated with
                     List-I                             List-II
    1. Herzberg                            a. ERG Theory
    2. McGregor                          b. Three-need theory
    3. Alderfer                             c. Theory X and Theory Y
    4. David McClelland              d. Two-factor theory
    Codes :
            1   2   3   4
    (A)   a   b   c   d
    (B)   d   c   b   a
    (C)   b   a  d    c
    (D)   d   c  a    b
38. Who was closely associated with industrial relations in India ?
    (A) B. Kurien
    (B) Gadgil
    (C) V.V. Giri
    (D) Vinoba Bhave
39. Under the Trade Union Act 1926, how many minimum number of members are required
      for a trade union to be registered ?
    (A) 5                    (B) 7
    (C) 9                    (D) 11
40. The idea that a manager tends to be promoted to a level of his incompetence is
       referred to as
    (A) the advancement principle
    (B) the Paul principle
    (C) the Peter principle
    (D) the job design principle
41. Which of the following committees is intended to review the working of
       the monitory system in India ?
    (A) Narasimham Committee
    (B) Tandon Committee
    (C) Sukhamoy Chakravarty Committee
    (D) Deheja Committee
42. Match the items of List-I with those in List-II and select the correct answer.
           List-I                                  List-II
    (a) Bank Rate Policy          1. Involving the shortening of the currency of bills
                                                 eligible for rediscount.
    (b) Credit Rationing            2. Involving the Purchase and sale of securities in
                                                  the open market.
    (c) Variable Reserve
          System                         3. Involving the alteration of discount rate.
    (d) Open Market
         Operations                    4. Involving the variation of the minimum reserves
    Codes :
           (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A)   1   4   2   3
    (B)   2   1   3   4
    (C)   4   2   1   3
    (D)   3   1   4   2
43. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the correct
      answer using the codes given below the lists.
          List-I                                 List-II
    (a) Rural Industries
         Programme                   (i) Meant for various target groups like
                                                  Rural youth, Ex-serviceman, women and
                                                  Scheduled Castes/Tribes
    (b) Mahila Vikas Nidhi
         Scheme                         (ii) Aim at ensuring flow of credit to
                                                   the disadvantaged sections of the society.
    (c) Entrepreneurship
         Development
         Programme                   (iii) Commercial exploitation of local resources.
    (d) Micro Credit
         Scheme                         (iv) Provides assistance to voluntary
                                                    organizations for the benefit of women.
    Codes :
          (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
    (B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
    (C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
    (D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
44. According to the FDI Policy of the Government of India (2012), the FDI
      in banks is limited to
    (A) 20% in Nationalised Banks and 74% in Private Sector Banks.
    (B) 20% in Nationalised Banks and 49% in Private Sector Banks.
    (C) 16% in Nationalised Banks and 74% in Private Sector Banks.
    (D) 49% in Nationalised Banks and 51% in Private Sector Banks.
45. According to the recent guidelines (2013) of the Reserve Bank of India
      the Private Sector Banks are required to have a minimum paid up equity capital of
    (A) ` 300 crores           (B) ` 200 crores
    (C) ` 400 crores           (D) ` 500 crores
46. International trade theory which provides that capital intensive country should export
       labour intensive goods and import capital goods is referred to as
    (A) Leontief Paradox
    (B) Heckscher-Ohlin Theory
    (C) Mercantilism Theory
    (D) Theory of Comparative Advantage
47. Which of the following is not a form of economic integration in the
      context of intra-regional trade ?
    (A) Customs Union
    (B) European Union
    (C) Economic Union
    (D) African Union
48. ‘Crawling Peg System’ means
    (A) Fixed Exchange Rate System.
    (B) Floating Exchange Rate System.
    (C) Hybrid of Fixed and Floating Exchange System.
    (D) None of the above.
49. From the following modes of international business, identify the mode which involves
      strategic alliance
    (A) Franchising
    (B) Leasing
    (C) Turnkey Project
    (D) Joint venture
50. Which of the following expressions amount to the import restriction measures ?
    (i) Currency control
    (ii) Establishment of EPZs
    (iii) Tariff cuts
    (iv) Imposition of tariffs
    (v) Imposition of non-tariff barriers
    Codes :
    (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
    (B) (i), (iv) and (v)
    (C) (iii), (iv) and (v)
    (D) (ii), (iii) and (v)