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Tuesday, 2 September 2014

UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED EDUCATION PAPER III

                       LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAL
                             UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED EDUCATION  PAPER III
01. Rationalism was a movement which advocated
    (A) a faith in the power of unaided reason
    (B) the reconciliation of Church dogmas with new science.
    (C) the substitution of Aristotelian authority for the Church.
    (D) None of the above
02. The educative experience is desirable to the
    (A) pragmatist, only if, on the whole it is acceptable to the pupil.
    (B) realist, only if it is pleasurable and practical for the pupil.
    (C) idealist only if it is effective in attaining immediate goals.
    (D) reconstructionist, only if it helps the pupil earn a living.
03. Which of the following is not an aim of education according to Jain Philosophy ?
    (A) Samyak J.nana (Right knowledge)
    (B) Samyak Samkalpa (Right determination)
    (C) Samyak Darshan (Right faith)
    (D) Samyak Charitra (Right conduct)
04. Stratification in society is based on
    (A) Power, Property and Prestige
    (B) Culture, Caste and Class
    (C) Education, Learning and Empowerment
    (D) Motivation, Mobility and Material possession
05. Social change is a change in
    (A) Social Relationships
    (B) Social Achievement
    (C) Social Values
    (D) Civilization
06. In socialization, the teacher should play the role of
    (A) An agent
    (B) An administrator
    (C) A counsellor
    (D) All of the above
07. The real carriers of heredity are
    (A) The Chromosomes
    (B) The Genes
    (C) The Nucleus of the cell
    (D) DNA
08. Social development is essentially a matter of
    (A) Conformity to the demands of the social order
    (B) Achievement of social security and acceptance
    (C) Integration of ones purposes with those of the social order
    (D) The development of social skills
09. Which of the following best describes the process of growth and development ?
    (A) It is entirely physical and physiological.
    (B) It is pre determined by heredity.
    (C) All of its aspects are highly inter-related.
    (D) It is essentially an individual phenomenon, different from person to person.
10. Structure of Intellect (SI model) is evolved by
    (A) Thurstone             (B) Guilford
    (C) Spearman             (D) Gardner
11. An intelligent child is characterised by
    (A) Creative and Divergent thinking
    (B) Critical and convergent thinking
    (C) Critical, creative and convergent thinking
    (D) All of the above
12. Constructivist learning is advocated by
    (A) Jean Piaget
    (B) Leu Vygotsky
    (C) B.F. Skinner
    (D) Kohler
13. Eysenck measured personality based on
    (A) Type and Traits
    (B) Type only
    (C) Traits only
    (D) None of the above
14. ‘Humanist theory’ of personality is advocated by
    (A) McDougal             (B) Maslow
    (C) Rogers                  (D) Guilford
15. Match the following in List – I with that of List – II in the correct order :
             List – I                             List – II
    a. Freud                           i. Directive counseling
    b. Williamson                   ii. Free Association
    c. Rogers                        iii. Free wheeling
   d. Gordon                        iv. Non-directive counseling
                                           v. Eclectic counseling
    Codes :
            a   b   c   d
    (A)   i   iii   iv   v
    (B)   ii   i    v   iv
    (C)   ii   i   iv   iii
    (D)   iii  ii   i     v
16. When working with children with disabilities it is important for thecounselor to enhance
      school based services by doing so, the counselor is taking on the role of
    (A) Investigator
    (B) Collaborator
    (C) Psychologist
    (D) Coordinator
17. The psychotherapeutic method of guidance involves in :
    (A) Emphasizes the use of the cumulative record
    (B) Supports the giving of advice to the counsele
    (C) Places confidence in the pupils ability to solve his/her own problems
    (D) Is the destructive method of counseling pupils.
18. In counseling with pupil, a teacher should
    (A) plan to do most of the talking
    (B) establish rapport with the pupil
    (C) refrain from giving him information
    (D) assume responsibility for solving his problems.
19. In experimental research hypothesis are formulated
    (A) before the experiment.
    (B) during the experiment.
    (C) after the experiment.
    (D) none of these.
20. Type-I error, in the testing of a null hypothesis, occurs when the researcher
    (A) rejects it when it is true
    (B) accepts it when it is false
    (C) Both (A) and (B)
    (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
21. Which of the following is wrong ? Hypothesis can be formulated using
    (A) the established theories.
    (B) the findings of previous research.
    (C) experience of the researcher.
    (D) the results of the same study.
22. A researcher conducted three experiments with 100 subjects each
      following uniform design instead of one experiment with 300 subjects. This is known as
    (A) Replication
    (B) Manipulation
    (C) Observation
    (D) Validation
23. Which of the following is not a characteristic of naturalistic inquiry ?
    (A) Data Triangulation
    (B) Prolonged stay in the field
    (C) Both (A) and (B)
    (D) Quantification of results
24. Internal criticism of historical data refers to
    (A) establish authenticity of data source
    (B) establish validity of the contents of data
    (C) both (A) and (B)
    (D) none of these
25. The mid day meal programme for pre-schools initiated with a view to
    (A) increase enrollment
    (B) involve community
    (C) engage teachers
    (D) increase the employment
26. The official organ of the U.S. Office of education is
    (A) School News
    (B) School Life
    (C) The Educator
    (D) School and Society
27. The main agency engaged in vocationalization of education in U.S.A.
    (A) Private Enterprise System
    (B) U.S. Department of Labour
    (C) Formal Education System
    (D) All of the above
28. The core-curriculum does not emphasize
    (A) democratic procedures
    (B) problem solving
    (C) a well defined body of subject matter
    (D) integration of different subject matter
29. The core curriculum consist of the
    (A) subject matter children must learn in school
    (B) subject offered by the school authorities
    (C) total experiences in the school programme
    (D) unit and lesson plans prep. by the teachers
30. A curriculum maker interested in designing a functional curriculum
      would need an understanding of
    (A) Educational philosophy
    (B) Psychological principles
    (C) Pedagogical procedures
    (D) All of the above
31. Who initiated the Bureaucratic approach in the field of administration ?
    (A) F.W. Taylor            (B) M.Weber
    (C) Mary Parker          (D) Elton Mayo
32. Educational planning relates to
    (A) choosing the best course of action for achieving the educational objectives.
    (B) recruitment of teachers.
    (C) checking the performance is in conformity with laid down standards.
    (D) motivating the subordinates.
33. A school supervisor has responsibility to
    (A) help the school in its development.
    (B) observe the classroom teaching and suggest improvements if required.
    (C) develop the teaching-learning material.
    (D) All of the above
34. Which of the following statements has been advocated under Human Relation Approach ?
    (A) Human beings do more work if their supervisors are strict.
    (B) Human being attach importance to good interpersonal relations.
    (C) Money is the only key motivation for human beings.
    (D) None of the above
35. Which of the following is not the source of Educational Finance ?
    (A) Public Funds
    (B) Local Bodies Fund
    (C) Education cess
    (D) Relief Fund
36. Which of the following is not the technique of supervisor ?
    (A) School visits
    (B) Surprise visits
    (C) Annual visits
    (D) Excursion visits
37. The Father of Scientific Management Approach is
    (A) F.W. Taylor
    (B) Henry Fayol
    (C) St. Etienne
    (D) W. Willson
38. Who defined planning as “Deciding in advance what to do, how to do it,
      whom to do it and when to do it” ?
    (A) Max Weber
    (B) Elton Mayo
    (C) Koontz
    (D) F. Taylor
39. For effective results, the educational supervisor should follow which of
      the following approaches ?
    (A) Team Approach
    (B) Modern Approach
    (C) Traditional Approach
    (D) Administrative Approach
40. Teachers often put questions to students during and/or immediately
      after teaching a lesson so as to assess their learning and thereby to proceed
      to the next lesson. This an example of
    (A) Summative evaluation
    (B) Formative evaluation
    (C) Concurrent evaluation
    (D) Diagnostic evaluation
41. Teacher Eligibility Test conducted for selection of candidates for admission into
      teacher education institution is an example of
    (A) Placement test
    (B) Aptitude test
    (C) Attitude test
    (D) Achievement test
42. The examination conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education
      (CBCE) can be categorized as
    (A) Norm Referenced Test
    (B) Criterion Referenced Test
    (C) Both (A) and (B)
    (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
43. Which of the following types of tools is most appropriate to assess one’s
      interest in a particular phenomenon ?
     (A) Questionnaire         (B) Scale
     (C) Test                        (D) Inventory
44. Which of the following is not related to item analysis ?
    (A) Item difficulty index
    (B) Item discrimination index
    (C) Reliability coefficient
    (D) Sensitivity of item to instructional effects
45. Miss Reema obtained grades in the subjects as follows in a 5 point scales :
      English – A; Mathematics – B; Science – D and Social Sciences – A. Her Grade
      Point Average (GPA) will be
    (A) 5                  (B) 3
    (C) 4                  (D) 3.5
46. Which of the following is not related to analysis of qualitative data ?
    (A) Axial coding
    (B) Meta Analysis
    (C) Rich thick description
    (D) Writing memos
47. The formula for calculation of Intelligence Quotient (IQ) is
    (A)CA/MA X 100
    (B) MA/CA X 100
    (C)CA/100 X MA
    (D)100/MA X CA
48. Norms are developed for the psychological tests at the time of their
    (A) Translation
    (B) Construction
    (C) Standardization
    (D) Administration
49. “Education Technology is the application of modern skills and
       techniques to the requirements of Education and Training.” This was stated by
    (A) Unwin
    (B) T. Sakamato
    (C) Leith
    (D) Saetter
50. The important concept for developing the understanding and skills of teaching and training is
    (A) Planning
    (B) Demonstration
    (C) Evaluation
    (D) Task Analysis
51. Which is not true of interactive video ?
    (A) Presentation of video pictures
    (B) Presentation of CAI materials
    (C) Use of principles of  programmed instruction
    (D) Learning becomes meaningful rather than instructional
52. What is the verbal component of a poster ?
    (A) Visual
    (B) Caption
    (C) Pictorial
    (D) All of the above
53. External programmed instruction is also known as
    (A) linear programmed instruction
    (B) internal programmed instruction
    (C) interpretive programmed instruction
    (D) crowderian programmed instruction
54. Which of the following is not a component of basic teaching model ?
    (A) Instructional objectives
    (B) Instructional procedures
    (C) Instructional assessment
    (D) Performance assessment
55. Match Column – A with Column – B :
              Column – A                        Column – B
    a. Audio-visual aids                     i. Software
    b. Behaviour technology              ii. Hardware
    c. Programmed instruction           iii. Management technology
    d. Training psychology                 iv. System analysis
                                                       v. Internet
    Codes :
    (A) a and i               (B) a and ii
    (C) c and iv            (D) d and i
56. Which of the following element contributes to educational
       achievement of distance learners ?
    (A) Student assignment response
    (B) Course material
    (C) Personal contact programme
    (D) All of the above
57. Which of the following statement is incorrect about microteaching ?
    (A) It is a method of teaching.
    (B) It consists of core teaching skills.
    (C) Each skill is practised separately.
    (D) Questioning is one component of microteaching.
58. Most important challenge in teaching a resource teacher is
    (A) identification and assessment of the disabled children
    (B) teaching plus curricular activities
    (C) sensitization of public, parents and peer groups.
    (D) establishing resource room and supplying assistive devices.
59. According to Rehabilitation Council of India, teacher-pupil ratio in teaching
     for the visually impaired children in a integrated education programme is
    (A) 1 : 10                (B) 1 : 8
    (C) 1 : 6                  (D) 1 : 1
60. In List – I the name of the National and International Acts, declarations
      are given and in List – II year regarding the Declarations and Acts
      are given. Match the List – I with List – II in correct order :
              List – I                                 List – II
    a. International Year of
        the Disabled People
        (IYDP)                                      i. 1990
    b. World Conference on
         Education for All
         (EFA)                                       ii. 1992
    c. Pupil with Disabilities
        Act (PWD)                               iii. 1995
    d. Rehabilitation
        Council of India Act
        (RCI)                                        iv. 1981
                                                         v. 1986
    Codes :
             a   b   c   d
    (A)   ii    i   iii   v
    (B)   iii   ii   iv   i
    (C)   iv   i   iii   ii
    (D)   i    iii  iv   ii
61. “There are three preventive activities, received from public regarding
        mentally retarded children.” Which of the following is incorrect one ?
    (A) Providing necessary advertisement through National
          Institute for Mentally Retarded Children.

    (B) Dissemination of available knowledge on ecology of mentally retarded through
          public media like newspapers, radio, television etc.
    (C) To bring together the parents and the interested person or
           public to mobilize their efforts to channalise funds and family.
    (D) Strengthening National level organizations to coordinate and disseminate the efforts.
62. The children with disabilities studying along with normal children
       in a least restrictive environment programme assisted by a resource teacher is known as
    (A) Special School Programme
    (B) Integrated Education Programme
    (C) Inclusive Education Programme
    (D) None of the above
63. Legal Blindness is defined as
    (A) 20/180 visual acuity in the better eye after best correction
    (B) 20/70 visual acuity in the better eye after best correction
    (C) 20/200 visual acuity in the better eye after best correction
    (D) 20/100 visual acuity in the better eye after best correction
64. Apex body for the hearing impaired in India is
    (A) Teacher training centre of little flower convent
    (B) Rehabilitation Council of India
    (C) The All India Institute of Speech and Hearing
    (D) Ali Yavar Jung National Institute for the Hearing Handicapped
65. The most important challenge in Rehabilitation intervention programme is
    (A) maintaining the full mobility or range of movement of the joints.
    (B) improving the muscle power in the affected limbs.
    (C) restoring the function of the affected limb by appropriate training.
    (D) providing splints or callipers if needed.
66. Match the following List – I with List – II in correct order :
               List – I                                       List – II
    a. Weakness of one half of body       i. Monopolegia
    b. Weakness of one limb                  ii. Paraplegia
    c. Weakness of all four limbs
        including trunk                              iii. Hemiplegia
    d. Weakness of both lower limbs
                                                            iv. Quadriple
                                                            v. Diabetic
    Codes :
            a   b   c   d
    (A)   ii   i   iii    v
    (B)   iii   i   iv   ii
    (C)   i   ii   iii    v
    (D)   iv iii   i     ii
67. “Destiny of India is being shaped in her classroom.” This is stated in
    (A) Education Commission (1964- 1966)
    (B) National Policy on Education (1986)
    (C) National Knowledge Commission (2005)
    (D) University Education Commission (1948-49)
68. National Education Day is observed on Nov.-11 every year in memory of
    (A) Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan
    (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
    (C) Zakir Hussain
    (D) Mahatma Gandhi
69. ‘Accreditation’ of Teacher Education Institution is done by
    (A) NCERT               (B) NCTE
    (C) NAAC                (D) NUEPA
70. Integrated Teacher Education Programmes are offered by
    (A) Self-financing colleges of Education
    (B) Open Universities in India
    (C) State Institutes of Education
    (D) Regional Institutes of Education
71. Match the following :
           List – I                           List – II
    a. Personalised System
       of Education                       i. Keller
    b. Cone of
        Experience                        ii. Edgar Dale
    c. Programmes
        Instruction                         iii. Herbart
    d. Didactic Apparatus           iv. Skinner
                                                 v. Crowder
    Codes :
           a  b   c    d
    (A)  i   ii   iv   v
    (B)  iii  i   iv   ii
    (C)  ii   i   iv  iii
    (D) iv  iii  ii    v
72. The most important single factor of success for a teacher in the beginning
      of teaching career is
    (A) Personality and ability to adjust to classroom
    (B) Positive attitude and outlook towards life
    (C) Verbal fluency and organizational ability
    (D) Competence and professional ethics
73. When the children become mischievous and disobedient in the classroom, the
       teacher should examine
    (A) Home background of the students
    (B) Influence of outside elements in class
    (C) Teaching methods and subject knowledge
    (D) Co-curricular and other attractions in the school
74. Teachers working with children with disabilities must register their names with
    (A) NCTE                 (B) RIE
    (C) NCERT               (D) RCI
75. Task analysis in teaching requires
    (A) Content and Pedagogy
    (B) Technology and Evaluation
    (C) Both (A) and (B)
    (D) None of these

UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED EDUCATION PAPER II

                         LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAL
                                UGC NET JUNE 2014 SOLVED EDUCATION PAPER II
                                                            
                                                                
01. Which of the following is not the purpose of educational philosophy ?
    (A) To professionalize the job of teaching
    (B) To increase the teachers love of and control over the students
    (C) To critically examine assumptions behind educational practice
    (D) To clarify values and aims in teaching.
02. The phrase “equal educational opportunities” in India means
    (A) equal opportunities for all children to have access to higher education.
    (B) equalities of educational opportunities for each child.
    (C) equality of the type of education available for each child.
    (D) equal opportunities to have the type of education for which one is suited.
03. To educate according to ‘nature’ means
    (A) to return to the natural as opposed to the artificial in life.
    (B) to educate according to the natural laws of human development
    (C) to study natural laws and apply them to the educational process
    (D) All the above are correct.
04. The teaching of Froebel grew out of his belief that
    (A) aim of education was self realization.
    (B) spiritual meaning lay behind all phenomena even play.
    (C) the method of education should be self-activity.
    (D) All the above answers are correct.
05. In the Dewey theory of how we think
    (A) the experimental method is used exclusively.
    (B) the logical method of inquiry is used exclusively.
    (C) the ideas produced by any method must be tested in experience.
    (D) none of the above.
06. From the angle of epistemology
    (A) the naturalist says truth must be obtained through objective rather than subjective means.
    (B) the idealist rejects dualism of man and nature by making man a part of nature.
    (C) the realist maintains that truth is arrived at through logical contemplation and revelation.
    (D) the pragmatist says man is a product of biological evolution.
07. Madhyama Pratipada is a cardinal principle of
    (A) Jainism
    (B) Buddhism
    (C) Vedanta Philosophy
    (D) Sankhya
08. Integral education is a concept given by
    (A) Aurobindo
    (B) J. Krishnamurthy
    (C) M.A. Kalam Azad
    (D) Annie Beasant
 09. The Jain epistemology considers a five stage hierarchy of knowledge. Which of the following
       is the proper order of different levels of knowledge ?
    (A) Mati, Shruti, Manahparyava, Avadhi, Kaivalya
    (B) Shruti, Mati, Avadhi, Manahparyava, Kaivalya
    (C) Mati, Shruti, Avadhi, Manahparyava, Kaivalya
    (D) Kaivalya, Avadhi, Manahparyava, Shruti, Mati
10. Match the following :
          List – I                   List – II
    a. Kaivalya              i. Panchkosh
    b. Jivan Mukti          ii. Buddhism
    c. Nirvana               iii. Jainism
    d. Anand                 iv. Vedanta
                                   v. Islamic traditions
    Codes :
            a   b   c   d
    (A)   ii   iii   i    v
    (B)   iii   v   ii   iv
    (C)   v   iii   ii   i
    (D)   iii  iv   ii    i
11. Pedagogy of the oppressed is authored by
    (A) Paulo Freire
    (B) Bertrand Russell
    (C) J. Krishnamurthy
    (D) John Dewey
12. Ivan Illich is renowned for
    (A) Life Long Learning
    (B) Life Skill Education
    (C) De Schooling Society
    (D) Distance Education
13. Culture is not
    (A) Constant flux
    (B) Cummulative
    (C) Primarily Materialistic
    (D) Uneven in development
14. Life skill education is needed
    (A) to adopt to one’s own culture
    (B) to enhance vocational efficiency
    (C) to promote cultural integration
    (D) to face the challenges in life effectively
15. Sanskritization is a process related with
    (A) Social Control
    (B) Social Stratification
    (C) Social Mobility
    (D) Social Change
16. Critically judge the following :
      Assertion (A) : Education promotes peace and harmony.
      Reason (R) : Democratic principles are practised in the classrooms.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
    (C) Only (A) is true.
    (D) Only (R) is true.
17. Enculturation is the process of
    (A) adopting the values of significant to others.
    (B) imbibing one’s own culture in one’s personality.
    (C) integrating the culture and traditions.
    (D) accepting the customs and values of other cultures.
18. Critically judge the following :
     Assertion (A) : Education is the key that unlocks the door to modernization.
     Reason (R) : Development of technology facilitates interaction among people.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
    (C) Only (A) is true but (R) is false.
    (D) Only (R) is true.
 19. Names of the scholars are given in List – I with the field of study in List – II. Match them by
       arranging in the correct order :
               List – I                                 List – II
    a. Margret Mead                         i. Cultural Lag
    b. William Ogburn                       ii. Culture and Adolescence
    c. Verrier Elwin                           iii. Sanskritization
    d. M.N. Srinivas                         iv. Tribalism
                                                      v. Religion
    Codes :
            a   b   c   d
    (A)   i   iv   iii   v
    (B)   ii   i    iv   iii
    (C)   iii  ii    i    iv
    (D)   iv  iii   i    v
20. Education as a sub-system of society helps
    (A) to cater to the needs of knowledge society.
    (B) to preserve the social customs and traditions.
    (C) to transform society through scientific and technological advances.
    (D) all of the above
21. Psychogy’s major contribution to education lies in
    (A) defining the goals for which teacher should strive.
    (B) identifying potentially successful methods and procedures for teaching.
    (C) providing scientific foundation for the art of teaching.
    (D) comparing the relative effectiveness of various teaching procedures.
22. The determinants of individual differences in human being relate to
    (A) differences in their environment only.
    (B) differences in their heredity only.
    (C) differences in their heredity and environment.
    (D) an interaction between factors of heredity and factors of environment.
23. Which of the following characteristics is not true of divergent thinking ?
    (A) Flexibility of ideas
    (B) Novelty of ideas
    (C) Correctness of ideas
    (D) Fluency of ideas
24. Research has constantly demonstrated that the best single index for readiness for a given
      academic task is
    (A) the IQ (Intelligence Quotient)
    (B) the AQ (Achievement Quotient)
    (C) the EQ (Emotional Quotient)
    (D) the MA (Mental Age)
25. Which of the following is the correct sequence of motivational set ?
    (A) Goal directed behaviour, attainment of goal, drive, satisfaction
    (B) Drive, goal directed behaviour, attainment of goal, satisfaction
    (C) Drive, satisfaction, attainment of goal, goal directed behaviour
    (D) None of the above.
26. The basic reason why meaningful material is learned rapidly is that
    (A) the learner is less likely to be bored
    (B) it is related to previous experience of the learner
    (C) it has continuity and meaning inherent in itself
    (D) it permits more effective transfer
27. Assertion (A) : Training obtained in one situation A can be transferred to another situation B.
      Reason (R) : It is because the two situation A and B are meaningful.
    Codes :
    (A) The Assertion (A) is true.
    (B) The Reason (R) is true.
    (C) Both the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true.
    (D) The Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is not true.
28. A problem child is one who has
    (A) an unsolved problem
    (B) a poor heredity
    (C) poor home environment
    (D) an over protective parent
29. Latent learning is a concept enunciated by
    (A) Hull                 (B) Piaget
    (C) Tolman            (D) Skinner
30. Punishment is a
    (A) Negative reinforcer
    (B) Positive reinforcer
    (C) Not a reinforcer at all
    (D) None of the above
31. Assertion (A) : Sometimes the school children becomes mischievous, explosive, rebellious or apathetic.
      Reason (R) : It is because of the inappropriateness of work assigned or demands made.
    Codes :
    (A) Only Assertion (A) is true.
    (B) Only the Reason (R) is true.
    (C) The Assertion (A) is true but the Reason (R) is false.
    (D) Both the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true.
32. In the final analysis, the key to motivation in the classroom is
    (A) the interest inherent in the subject matter.
    (B) the teacher’s personality and his/her communication skills.
    (C) the emotional climate of the classroom.
    (D) the suitability of the curricular experiences.
33. What is Rorschach’s projective test designed to measure ?
    (A) Unconscious intentions
    (B) Dreams
    (C) Conscious desires
    (D) All of the above
34. The concept of ‘Arche type’ was given by
    (A) Freud                  (B) Arieti
    (C) Wallas                 (D) Jung
35. The theory of Level – I and Level – II intelligence was propounded by
    (A) Jenson               (B) Guilford
    (C) Cattel                (D) Eysenck
36. A non-government organization conducted a study in a Gram Panchayat to see the impacts of
      campaign approach on enrolment and retention of rural elementary school
      children. This is an example of
    (A) Descriptive Study
    (B) Field Experiment
    (C) Ex-post facto research
    (D) Historical Research
37. An experimenter administered a pretest on both experimental and control groups and found
      that the pre-test mean scores of the groups differ. Which of the following statistical
      techniques can address this difference in studying the impacts of independent variable ?
    (A) Analysis of variance
    (B) t-test
    (C) Regression analysis
    (D) Analysis of co-variance
38. Sampling error can not be estimated when the researcher employs
    (A) Simple random sampling
    (B) Stratified random sampling
    (C) Systematic sampling
    (D) Quota sampling
39. Which of the following is not a non probability sampling technique ?
    (A) Snow-ball sampling
    (B) Stratified random sampling
    (C) Incidental sampling
    (D) Purposive sampling
40. Which of the following variables is discrete ?
    (A) Achievement
    (B) Intelligence
    (C) Aptitude
    (D) Attribute
41. Which of the following is a nonparametric test ?
    (A) t-test               (B) F-test
    (C) c2-test            (D) z-test
42. The range of coefficient of correlation between two variables is
    (A) 0 to +1
    (B) +1 to –1
    (C) 0 to –1
    (D) none of the above
43. The most stable measure of variability is
    (A) Range
    (B) Mean Deviation
    (C) Standard Deviation
    (D) Quartile Deviation
44. Which of the following falls under Inferential Statistics ?
    (A) Arithmetic Mean
    (B) Standard Deviation
    (C) Harmonic Mean
    (D) Analysis of Variance
45. Match the following :
           List – I                              List – II
    a. Experimental                       i. Criticism
    b. Historical                            ii. Control
    c. Case study                         iii. Interpretative
    d. Ethnography                       iv. Intensive
                                                  v. Intuitive
    Codes :
            a   b    c   d
    (A)   ii   iii   iv   v
    (B)   i    ii    v   iii
    (C)  iii   i     iv   v
    (D)  ii   i     iv   iii
46. Research conducted by classroom teacher to improve spelling among students in English
      language is categorized as
    (A) Pure Research
    (B) Qualitative Research
    (C) Quantitative Research
    (D) Active Research
47. For conducting research in group dynamics, which of the following techniques can be used ?
    (A) Anthropometry
    (B) Biometry
    (C) Geometry
    (D) Sociometry
48. A study of the causes and consequences of India’s freedom struggle movement falls under which
      of the following types of research ?
    (A) Ex-post facto research
    (B) Historical Research
    (C) Correlational Research
    (D) Phenomenological Research
49. Which of the following is a positional average ?
    (A) Mean
    (B) Median
    (C) Mode
    (D) None of the above
50. Test-retest is a method to determine
    (A) Validity                  (B) Reliability
    (C) Feasibility              (D) Objectivity

Monday, 1 September 2014

UGC NET SOLVED PAPER I JUNE 2014

                    LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAL
                                          UGC NET SOLVED PAPER I JUNE 2014

01. Break-down in verbal communication is described as
    (A) Short circuit
    (B) Contradiction
    (C) Unevenness
    (D) Entropy
02. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of
    (A) Technological theory
    (B) Dispersion theory
    (C) Minimal effects theory
    (D) Information theory
03. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on
    (A) Karan Johar             (B) Amir Khan
    (C) Asha Bhonsle           (D) Gulzar
04. Photographs are not easy to
    (A) publish                  (B) secure
    (C) decode                 (D) change
05. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as
    (A) sparks              (B) green dots
    (C) snow                (D) rain drops
06. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is
    (A) noise               (B) audience
    (C) criticality         (D) feedback
07. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of ` 7, ` 8, ` 10 are available. The exact amount
      for which one cannot buy stamps is
    (A) 19                   (B) 20
    (C) 23                   (D) 29
08. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is
      the code word for the word RESPONSE ?
    (A) OMESUCEM
    (B) OMESICSM
    (C) OMESICEM
    (D) OMESISCM
09. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, .... is continued in the same pattern, which one of the following
      is not a term of this series ?
    (A) 31                 (B) 32
    (C) 33                 (D) 35
10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ...........by choosing one of the following option given :
    (A) TS                    (B) ST
    (C) RS                    (D) SR
11. A man started walking from his house towards south. After walking 6 km, he turned to his left
      and walked 5 km. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left
      and continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house ?
    (A) 3 km             (B) 4 km
    (C) 5 km             (D) 6 km
12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been
      written ?
    (A) 32                (B) 36
    (C) 40                (D) 38
13. “If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into
      small units of soldiers, it loses its strength.” The argument put above may be called as
    (A) Analogical            (B) Deductive
    (C) Statistical             (D) Causal
14. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses
     a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
    (A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
    (B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.
    (C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
    (D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment.
15. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but can not both
     be false, the relation between those two propositions is called
    (A) contradictory
    (B) contrary
    (C) subcontrary
    (D) subaltern
16. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that
      expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).
    Premises :
    (a) All dogs are mammals.
    (b) No cats are dogs.
    Conclusions :
    (i) No cats are mammals.
    (ii) Some cats are mammals.
    (iii) No dogs are cats.
    (iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
    Codes :
    (A) (i) only                    (B) (i) and (ii)
    (C) (iii) and (iv)             (D) (ii) and (iii)
 17. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each other.
      The circle A represents the class of Indians, the circle B represents the class of scientists and
      circle C represents the class of politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent different regions. Select the code
      containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are not politicians.


 
    Codes :
    (A) q and s only
    (B) s only
    (C) s and r only
    (D) p, q and s only
     Read the following table carefully. Based upon this table answer questions from 18 to 22 :
    Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a country (Thousand Hectares)

 


       Year
Government
    canals
   Private
   canals
    Tanks
   Tube
  wells &
   other
   wells
   Other
 sources
    Total
1997-98
17117
211
2593
32090
3102
55173
1998-99
17093
212
2792
33988
3326
57411
1999-00
16842
194
2535
34623
2915
57109
2000-01
15748
203
2449
33796
2880
55076
2001-02
15031
209
2179
34906
4347
56672
2002-03
13863
206
1802
34250
3657
53778
2003-04
14444
206
1908
35779
4281
56618
2004-05
14696
206
1727
34785
7453
58867
2005-06
15268
207
2034
35372
7314
60196

18. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in
      Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
    (A) Government canals
    (B) Private canals
    (C) Tanks
    (D) Other sources
19. Find out the source of Irrigation that has registered the maximum improvement in terms of percentage
      of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
    (A) Government canals
    (B) Tanks
    (C) Tube wells and other wells
    (D) Other sources
20. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate ?
    (A) 1998-99              (B) 2000-01
    (C) 2003-04              (D) 2005-06
21. Identify the source of Irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms
     of Net irrigated area during the years given in the table.
    (A) Government canals
    (B) Private canals
    (C) Tube wells and other wells
    (D) Other sources
22. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area
      was the highest ?
    (A) 1998-99          (B) 2000-01
    (C) 2002-03          (D) 2004-05
23. The acronym FTP stands for
    (A) File Transfer Protocol
    (B) Fast Transfer Protocol
    (C) File Tracking Protocol
    (D) File Transfer Procedure
24. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format ?
    (A) PNG                (B) GIF
    (C) BMP                (D) GUI
25. The first web browser is
    (A) Internet Explorer
    (B) Netscape
    (C) World Wide Web
    (D) Firefox
26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
    (A) RAM                     (B) ROM
    (C) CD-ROM              (D) TCP
27. Which one of the following is not the same as the other three ?
    (A) MAC address
    (B) Hardware address
    (C) Physical address
    (D) IP address
28. Identify the IP address from the following :
    (A) 300 × 215 × 317 × 3
    (B) 302 × 215@ 417 × 5
    (C) 202 × 50 × 20 × 148
    (D) 202 – 50 – 20 – 148
29. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person per
     year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate of
     carbon emissions per kilojoule is 15 × 106 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from
     India will be
    (A) 54 million metric tons
    (B) 540 million metric tons
    (C) 5400 million metric tons
    (D) 2400 million metric tons
30. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times ?
    (A) Paris
    (B) London
    (C) Los Angeles
    (D) Beijing
31. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
    (A) run-off urban areas
    (B) run-off from agricultural forms
    (C) sewage effluents
    (D) industrial effluents
32. ‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving
    (A) eruption of large amount of material
    (B) strong winds
    (C) strong water waves
    (D) strong winds and water waves
33. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement
      among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared
      to that of pre-industrial times by
    (A) 1.5 °C to 2 °C
    (B) 2.0 °C to 3.5 °C
    (C) 0.5 °C to 1.0 °C
    (D) 0.25 °C to 0.5 °C
34. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of
    (A) Environment
    (B) Water Resources
    (C) Home Affairs
    (D) Defence
35. Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
          List – I                                       List – II
    a. Flood                          1. Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
    b. Drought                       2. Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the
                                                rocks of the earth
    c. Earthquake                  3. A vent through which molted substances come out
    d. Volcano                      4. Excess rain and uneven distribution of water
     Codes :
             a   b   c   d
    (A)   4   1   2   3
    (B)   2   3   4   1
    (C)   3   4   2   1
    (D)   4   3   1   2
36. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere ?
    (A) Chlorofluorocarbon
    (B) Carbon dioxide
    (C) Methane
    (D) Nitrous oxide
37. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below :
    i. Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
    ii. India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
    iii. The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.
    iv. The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
    Codes :
    (A) i and ii               (B) i, ii and iii
    (C) ii and iii              (D) i and iv
38. Who among the following is the de facto executive head of the Planning Commission ?
    (A) Chairman
    (B) Deputy Chairman
    (C) Minister of State for Planning
    (D) Member Secretary
39. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
    (A) Union List
    (B) State List
    (C) Concurrent List
    (D) Residuary Powers
40. Which of the following are Central Universities ?
    1. Pondicherry University
    2. Vishwa Bharati
    3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
    4. Kurukshetra University
    Select the correct answer from the code given below :
    Codes :
    (A) 1, 2 and 3           (B) 1, 3 and 4
    (C) 2, 3 and 4           (D) 1, 2 and 4
41. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
      Statement : India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
      Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
                         (ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
    Codes :
    (A) Only argument (i) is strong.
    (B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
    (C) Both the arguments are strong.
    (D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
42. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept ?
    (A) Assam University
    (B) Delhi University
    (C) Hyderabad University
    (D) Pondicherry University
43. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University ?
    1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
    2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
    3. The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the
        Board of Management of the University.
    4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.
    Select the correct answer from the code given below :
    Codes :
    (A) 1, 2 and 4           (B) 1, 3 and 4
    (C) 1, 2 and 3           (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
44. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching ?
    (A) Students asking questions
    (B) Maximum attendance of the students
    (C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
    (D) Students taking notes
45. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?
    (A) Lecture
    (B) Discussion
    (C) Demonstration
    (D) Narration
46. Dyslexia is associated with
    (A) mental disorder
    (B) behavioural disorder
    (C) reading disorder
    (D) writing disorder
47. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry
     of Human Resource Development to
    (A) INFLIBNET
    (B) Consortium for Educational Communication
    (C) National Knowledge Commission
    (D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
48. Classroom communication is normally considered as
    (A) effective
    (B) cognitive
    (C) affective
    (D) selective
49. Who among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm ?
    (A) Peter Haggett
    (B) Von Thunen
    (C) Thomas Kuhn
    (D) John K. Wright
50. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in
    (A) the appendix
    (B) a separate chapter
    (C) the concluding chapter
    (D) the text itself
51. A thesis statement is
    (A) an observation
    (B) a fact
    (C) an assertion
    (D) a discussion
52. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings
       in natural settings is identified as
    (A) positive paradigm
    (B) critical paradigm
    (C) natural paradigm
    (D) interpretative paradigm
53. Which one of the following is a non probability sampling ?
    (A) Simple random
    (B) Purposive
    (C) Systematic
    (D) Stratified ΓΌ
54. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous
      feedback to the students during instruction.
    (A) Placement               (B) Diagnostic
    (C) Formative               (D) Summative
55. The research stream of immediate application is
    (A) Conceptual research
    (B) Action research
    (C) Fundamental research
    (D) Empirical research
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60 :
Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from
that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common
system of leadership which we call the ‘State’. The Indian ‘State’s’ special feature is the
peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical
provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without
ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern
Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon
the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the
litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law,
though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word ‘State’
above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the
State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of
state ‘sovereignty’ or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian ‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make
a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India’s
famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the
rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the
sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one
remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia. There is little about modern India
that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the
absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very
different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all
Utopians.
56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?
    (A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
    (B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to
          each other in a geographical, economic and political sense

    (C) Social integration of all groups
    (D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups.
57. The author uses the word ‘State’ to highlight
    (A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.
    (B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
    (C) The concept of state sovereignty.
    (D) Dependence on religion.
58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian ‘Secularism’ ?
    (A) No discrimination on religious considerations
    (B) Total indifference to religion
    (C) No space for social identity
    (D) Disregard for social law
59. The basic construction of Thomas More’s Utopia was inspired by
    (A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
    (B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
    (C) Social inequality in India.
    (D) European perception of Indian State.
60. What is the striking feature of modern India ?
    (A) A replica of Utopian State           (B) Uniform laws
    (C) Adherence to traditional values    (D) Absence of Bigotry