UGC NET DECEMBER 2013 SOLVED HISTORY PAPER II

                         LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAL
                               UGC NET DECEMBER 2013 SOLVED HISTORY PAPER II
                                                                       HISTORY
                                                                       Paper – II
1. Flake tools of Levallois technique is the characteristic feature of which area of the following
    geological ages ?
    (A) Lower Pleistocene
    (B) Holocene
    (C) Upper Pleistocene
    (D) Middle Pleistocene
2. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes below :
           List – I                           List – II
    a. Sohagighat                 1. Kashmir Neolith
    b. Balathal                     2. V.S. Wakankar
    c. Bhimbetka                 3. Ahar Culture Site
    d. Burzahom                 4. A.C.L. Carlleyle
    Codes :
             a   b   c   d
    (A)   3   4   1   2
    (B)   4   3   2   1
    (C)   1   2   4   3
    (D)   2   1   3   4
3. Which one of the following situated in the North-East Afghanistan is a Harappan trading port ?
    (A) Sutkagen Dor                   (B) Mundigak
    (C) Shoturgai                          (D) Nausharo
4. Which one of the following Buddhist texts mentions five hundred wives of Bimbisara ?
    (A) Mahavamsa                   (B) Mahavagga
    (C) Dipavamsa                    (D) Mahavastu
5. Which of the below mentioned Indo- Greek rulers issued coins bearing the figures of Krishna
    and Balarama ?
    (A) Menander
    (B) Agathocles
    (C) Heliocles
    (D) Archebius
6. Point out which one of the following sites associated with the Nagas had a
    shrine dedicated to Dadhikarna, the lord of the Nagas
    (A) Padmavati                   (B) Kantipuri
    (C) Mathura                      (D) Rajagriha
7. Which one of the following Puranas replaces the Buddha with Krishna in the list of the Avataras of
     Vishnu ?
    (A) Matsya Purana
    (B) Bhagavata Purana
    (C) Vayu Purana
    (D) Kurma Purana
8. The earliest Lingodbhavamurti of Siva has been found at which one of the below mentioned sites ?
    (A) Kanchi                     (B) Bhojpur
    (C) Gudimallam              (D) Khoh
9. Which one of the below mentioned South Indian temples has wall-paintings ?
    (A) Kailashnath temple at Kanchipuram
    (B) Virupaksha temple at Pattadakal
    (C) Vijayalaya Cholishwara temple at Narttamalai
    (D) Koranganatha temple at Srinivasanallur
10. Arrange the Pala kings listed below in chronological order and select the
      correct answer from the codes given below :
      List :
    (i) Rajyapala
    (ii) Narayanapala
    (iii) Devapala
    (iv) Gopala
    Codes :
    (A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
    (B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
    (C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
    (D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
 11. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
               List – I                                      List – II
    (Works on Medicine)                          (Authors)
    a. Bhanumati                                 1. Chakrapanidatta
    b. Shalihotra                                 2. Vangasena
    c. Vrikshayurveda                         3. Bhoja
    d. Chikitsasarasamgraha                4. Sureshvara
    Codes :
            a    b   c   d
    (A)   4   1   2   3
    (B)   3   2   1   4
    (C)   2   4   3   1
    (D)   1   3   4   2
12. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
            List – I                                List – II
           (Kings)                               (Dynasty)
    a. Udayanjeral                           1. Pandya
    b. Karikala                                2. Chola
    c. Nediyon                                3. Pallava
    d. Simhavisnu                             4. Chera
    Codes :
             a   b   c   d
    (A)   4   2   1   3
    (B)   3   4   2   1
    (C)  1   3   4   2
    (D)  2   1   3   4
13. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
            List – I                                            List – II
         (Authors)                                   (Works on Law)
    a. Jimutavahana                          1. Manutika
    b. Govindaraja                           2. Smritichandrika
    c. Vijnanesvara                           3. Dayabhaga
    d. Devannabhatta                        4. Mitakshara
    Codes :
       a b c d
    (A) 4 2 1 3
    (B) 1 3 2 4
    (C) 3 1 4 2
    (D) 2 4 3 1
14. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
            List – I                                          List – II
      (Temple Style)                              (Name of Temple)                         
    a. Nagara                                      1. Temple at Paharpur
    b. Dravida                                     2. Jain temple at Lakkudi
    c. Chalukyan                                 3. Nilkantha Mahadev at Saunak
    d. Exotic                                       4. Kailashnath at Ellora
    Codes :
             a   b   c   d
    (A)   2   3   1   4
    (B)   3   4   2   1
    (C)   4   1   3   2
    (D)   1   2   4   3
15. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
      Assertion (A) : Ancient Indian Art styles during the post-Gupta period are named as per
                             dynasties ruling over a particular region.
      Reason (R) : Rules of the post- Gupta dynasties were the sole patronisers of Art.
      Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
16. According to Al-Beruni, the antyajas were
    (A) Hadi, Dom and Chandala caste of people
    (B) Prostitutes
    (C) Eight guilds of people below the Sudras
    (D) Foreigners
 17. The Ilbari ruler who introduced Sijada, Paibos and Nauroz to the Delhi Sultanate was
    (A) Qutabuddin Aibek
    (B) Iltutmish
    (C) Balban
    (D) Bahram Shah
18. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
     Assertion (A) : The Turks did not use Hindu style of representing human and animal figures on
                             the buildings.
     Reason (R) : They used geometrical and floral designs and panels of inscriptions containing verses
                         from Quran.
    Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
19. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
                    List – I                                                  List – II
              (Literary works)                                        (Authors)
    a. Adab ul Harb wa al Shujat                         1. Ata Malik Juwaini
    b. Tabaqat-i- Nasiri                                       2. Zia ud din Barani
    c. Tarikh-i- Jahan Gusha                                3. Minhaj Siraj
    d. Tarikh-I Firuz Shahi                                   4. Fakhr-i- Mudabbir
    Codes :
            a    b   c   d
    (A)   3   4   2   1
    (B)   4   3   1   2
    (C)   4   2   1   3
    (D)   2   1   4   3
20. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
                          List – I                                            List – II
    a. Iqta-i- Tamlik                                1. A confidential meeting of king and high officials
    b. Majlis-i- Khalwat                          2. Short term governorship
    c. Mahsul                                          3. Gross income of the province
    d. Iqta-i- Istighal                               4. Hereditary Iqta
    Codes :
             a   b   c   d
    (A)   2   4   3   1
    (B)   4   1   3   2
    (C)   4   1   2   3
    (D)   2   3   4  1
21. Shiqqdar was
    (A) the head of village patwaris
    (B) the military officer at the pargana level
    (C) the treasurer of the pargana
    (D) looking after the trade activities
22. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
      Assertion (A) : The Bhakti Movement of medieval period succeeded in bringing into the
                             fold of Hinduism many adherents of Buddhism and Jainism.
      Reason (R) : As a process of cultural assimilation many tribals were Hinduized by
                         fitting themselves into the caste system.
    Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
 23. Shaikh Nuruddin was the founder of the
    (A) Rishi Silsilah of Sufis in Kashmir
    (B) Chishti Silsilah of Sufis in Ajmer
    (C) Firdausi Silsilah of Sufis in Bihar
    (D) Suhrawardi Silsilah of Sufis in Multan
24. Considering the relationship between ulema and the ruler during the Sultanate period which one of the
      following statements is correct ?
    (A) The ulema derived authority from the shariat.
    (B) The ulema did not allow the Sultan to interpret the Divine Word.
    (C) The ulema could not be dispensed with by the Sultan at will.
    (D) None of the above
25. Identify the foreign traveller who gives an account of the Bahamani Kingdom
    (A) Ralph Fitch
    (B) Nicolo Conti
    (C) A. Nikitin
    (D) F. Nuniz
26. ‘Mawarun nahr’ was the Arabic term for the Central Asian region of
    (A) Farghana
    (B) Khurasan
    (C) Khwarizm
    (D) Transoxiana
27. Concerning Humayun which of the following is correct ?
    (A) Humayun was very fond of astronomy and geography.
    (B) Humayun collected a large number of books for the imperial library.
    (C) Humayun during his military campaigns used to take some selected books for his use.
    (D) All of the above
28. Din-i-Ilahi was primarily
    (A) the official religion of state.
    (B) a synthesis of Hinduism and Islam.
    (C) the reiteration of the principle of universal harmony.
    (D) a superior religion for the masses.
29. What was the percentage of rural population of India, as per the popular estimate, during the
     16th and 17th centuries ?
    (A) Around 55%
    (B) Around 65%
    (C) Around 75%
    (D) Around 85%
30. Consider the following statements in respect of Rathor rebellion :
    (i) The Rathor rebellion broke out following the death of Prithvi Singh, son of Jaswant Singh.
    (ii) Aurangzeb installed Indra Singh as the ruler of Marwar.
    (iii) The rebellion broke out following Aurangzeb’s plan to make Jodhpur a part of the Mughal Empire.
    (iv) Rani Hadi was supported by the Rathors and Rana Raj Singh of Mewar in the rebellion.
    Which of above statement(s) is/are correct ?
    (A) (i) only                  (B) (ii) & (iii)
    (C) (iii) &  (iv)             (D) (ii) & (iv)
 31. Arrange the following in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes
      given below :
    (i) The Policy of Ring Fence
    (ii) The Policy of Equal Federation
    (iii) The Policy of Subordinate Union
    (iv) The Policy of Subordinate Isolation
    Codes :
    (A) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
    (B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
    (C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
    (D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
32. English East India Company lost the monopoly of Chinese trade by
    (A) The Charter Act of 1813
    (B) The Charter Act of 1833
    (C) The Charter Act of 1853
    (D) The Charter Act of 1893
33. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
    (A) Amrita Bazar Patrika was originally a Bengali paper.
    (B) Samachar Darpan, the Vernacular newspaper was started during the period of Warren Hastings.
    (C) Bombay Times became the Times of India.
    (D) The Bengal Gazette, the Weekly Newspaper, was started by James Augustus Hickey.
34. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
                       List – I                                      List – II
    a. Treaty of Allahabad                                1. 1769
    b. Treaty of Madras                                   2. 1765
    c. Treaty of Purandar                                 3. 1776
    d. Treaty of Mangalore                              4. 1784
    Codes :
            a    b   c   d
    (A)   2   3   4   1
    (B)   3   4   1   2
    (C)   2   1   3   4
    (D)   1   2   4   3
35. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A), and the other is labelled as
      Reason (R) :
      Assertion (A) : The process of transition to Colonialism was underway over almost a
                             century 1757-1856.
      Reason (R) : English East India Company annexed all the Indian territories directly under its control.
     Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    Codes :
    (A) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
    (B) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
    (C) Both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (D) Both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
 36. The main reason for the peasants to join the 1857 revolt was
    (A) inordinately high revenue demands.
    (B) the revenue policies not only uprooted the ordinary peasants but also destroyed the gentry of
          the country.
    (C) the beneficiaries of the new revenue policies were also not satisfied.
    (D) all the above
37. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
                      List – I                                             List – II
    a. Death of Sir Syed Ahmad Khan                    1. 1897
    b. Madanlal Dhingra shot dead Curzon
       Wyllie in London                                            2. 1898
    c. Chapekar brothers murdered the
        cruel Plague Commissioner Rand and Lt.
        Ayerst                                                           3. 1909
    d. Coronation Durbar in honour
       of George V held at Delhi                               4. 1911
    Codes :
            a    b   c   d
    (A)   2   3   1   4
    (B)   3   2   4   1
    (C)   1   4   3  2
    (D)   4   1   2  3
38. Given below are the two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
      Reason (R) :
     Assertion (A) : MaCaulay’s Law Commission enacted in 1860s marked an end to India seen as
                            a land of ‘oriental despotism’
     Reason (R) : Equity and justice were seen to be meted out in place of what was imagined as
                         the despots ‘dark and solemn’ justice.
    Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    Codes :
    (A) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
    (B) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
    (C) Both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (D) Both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
39. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
                           List – I                                          List – II
    a. Behramji M. Malabari                         1. Emancipation of women
    b. Dando Keshav Karve                         2. Kanyasulkam
    c. Kandukuri Veeresalingam                    3. Parsi Social Reformer
    d. Gurazada Appa Rao                           4. Widow Remarriage Movement
    Codes :
            a    b   c   d
    (A)   3   1   4   2
    (B)   1   4   2   3
    (C)   4   2   3   1
    (D)   2   3   1   4
40. One of the following was not associated with Justice Party :
    (A) K.M. Patro
    (B) Ramaswami Naikar
    (C) Tanguturi Prakasam
    (D) Raja Ram Rainingar
 41. What did the ruler of Nabha and Jind offer Ranjit Singh as a token of accepting his subordination ?
    (A) Their forts                    (B) Their territory
    (C) Costly gifts                   (D) Their horses
42. Indicate the newspaper mentioned below with which Gandhiji was not associated
    (A) Indian Opinion
    (B) Indian Mirror
    (C) Harijan
    (D) Young India
43. Match the List – I with List – II :
                 List – I                                             List – II
           (Princely State)                     (Gun salutes entitled by the ruler)
    a. Sangli                                                    1. 17
    b. Gwalior                                                 2. 9
    c. Dholpur                                                 3. 15
    d. Kutch                                                    4. 21
    Codes :
             a   b   c   d
    (A)   3   4   2   1
    (B)   4   2   1   3
    (C)   1   3   4   2
    (D)   2   4   3   1
44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
                  List – I                                     List – II
    a. Clement Attlee                              1. August Offer
    b. Mountbatten                                 2. Breakdown plan
    c. Lord Linlithgow                             3. Cabinet Mission
    d. Wavell                                           4. Plan Balkan
    Codes :
             a   b   c   d
    (A)   3   4   2   1
    (B)   4   3   1   2
    (C)   3   4   1   2
    (D)   1   2   4   3
45. Which one of the following was the most immediate problem India confronted after independence ?
    (A) Settlement of boundaries after partition
    (B) Division of Civil Service personnel
    (C) Division of military assets
    (D) Communal and refugee problem
46. Match List – I (Authors) with List – II (Books) and select the correct answer from the codes
      given below :
                  List – I                                   List – II
    a. Lucien Febvre                     1. The Peasants of the Languedoc
    b. Max Bloch                          2. The Historian’s Craft
    c. Emmanuel L.R. Ladurie       3. The Mediterranean
    d. Fernand Braudel                 4. The Regions of France : Franche Comte
    Codes :
           a   b  c  d
    (A)  3  2  4  1
    (B)  4  1  2  3
    (C)  4  2  1  3
    (D)  1  4  3  2
47. The “Idea of Progress” in historiography relates to
    (A) Romanticism
    (B) Enlightenment
    (C) Post modernism
    (D) Dialectical materialism
48. The concept of ‘Total History’ is associated with which one of the following schools of historical
      writing ?
    (A) Marxist School
    (B) Positivist School
    (C) Annales School
    (D) Subaltern School
49. The major determinant(s) of the policy of non-alignment was/were
    (A) Anti-racialism
    (B) Anti-imperialism
    (C) Both (A) and (B)
    (D) None of the above
50. Who among the following is the author of The Cold War and its Origin ?
    (A) Daniel Singer
    (B) A.F.K. Organski
    (C) D.F. Flaming
    (D) G. Ionescu

UGC NET DECEMBER 2013 SOLVED COMMERCE PAPER III

                         LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAL
                           UGC NET DECEMBER 2013 SOLVED COMMERCE PAPER III
                                                                   PAPER-III
                                                                COMMERCE
1. The present regime of subsidies can be improved by focusing on
      (i) Reducing the overall scale of subsidies.
     (ii) Making subsidies as transparent as possible.
    (iii) Giving a specific amount to the Member of Parliament for subsidies.
    (iv) Setting clear limits on duration of any new subsidy scheme.
    (v) Eliminating system of periodic review of subsidies
    (vi) Using subsidies for well defined economic objectives.
   Codes :
    (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
    (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
    (C) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
    (D) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
2. Which of the following is not regulated by The Competition Act, 2002 ?
    (A) Abuse of dominant position
    (B) Anti-competitive agreements
    (C) Medical negligence
    (D) Predatory pricing
3. The freedom of private enterprise is the greatest in the free market economy. This is characterized by
    which of the following assumptions ?
    (i) The factors of production (labour, land, capital) are privately owned and production
         occurs at the initiative of the private enterprise.
    (ii) Income is received in monetary form by the sale of services of the factors of production and
         from the profits of the private enterprise.
    (iii) Members of the free market economy have freedom of choice in so far as consumption,
         occupation, savings and investments are concerned.
    (iv) The free market economy is not planned, controlled or regulated by the government.
    (v) The free market economy is prone to corrupt practices.
    Codes :
    (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
    (B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
    (C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
    (D) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
4. The important responsibilities of a business to the customers are
    (i) To ensure family welfare of the customers.
    (ii) To understand customer needs and to take the necessary measures to satisfy these needs.
    (iii) To ensure health condition of the customers.
    (iv) To ensure that the product supplied has no adverse effect on the customer.
    (v) To provide an opportunity for being heard and to redress genuine grievances.
    Codes :
    (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
    (B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
    (C) (ii), (iv) and (v)
    (D) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
5. The rationale of expanding role of the public sector stems mainly from which of the following factors ?
    (i) The failure of the private sector in certain crucial areas
    (ii) The exploitation of the society by the private sector
    (iii) The revenue need of the Central Government
    (iv) The demand of economic justice
    (v) The need for accelerating the pace of economic growth
    Codes :
    (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
    (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
    (C) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
    (D) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
6. Which of the following factors may lead to a sick industrial unit ?
    (i) Shortage of funds and faulty financial management
    (ii) Investment by the FIIs in Indian industries
    (iii) Unauthorized FDI in Indian industries
    (iv) Lack of experience on the part of promoters
    (v) Technological factors including obsolete or improper technology
    Codes :
    (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
    (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
    (C) (i), (iv) and (v)
    (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
7. Indicate what is not correct in respect of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
   (A) No complaint can be entertained in respect of a product purchased more than 2 years back.
   (B) A complaint against medical negligence can be filed by legal heir or representative of the deceased.
   (C) A complaint involving a claim of ` 15 lakhs is to be filed before the State Commission.
   (D) Both (A) and (C)
8. If bonus shares are issued out of preacquisition profit, it will have
   (A) Direct effect on the Consolidated Balance Sheet
   (B) No effect on the Consolidated Balance Sheet
   (C) No effect on Net Profit
   (D) None of the above
9. The present value of the future contributions of employees is one of the methods of
   (A) HR Accounting
   (B) Inflation Accounting
   (C) Social Accounting
   (D) Responsibility Accounting
10. A standard which can be attained under the most favourable working conditions is called
   (A) Attainable Standard
   (B) Basic Standard
   (C) Current Standard
   (D) Ideal Standard
11. Which of the following ratios are taken into consideration by a banker before sanctioning the loan ?
   (A) Proprietory Ratio
   (B) Stock-Turnover Ratio
   (C) Debt-Equity Ratio
   (D) All of the above
12. Match the items of the following two lists :
                   List – I                                    List – II
   (i) Zero-base Budgeting                    (a) Internal Reconstruction
   (ii) Goodwill or Capital Reserve        (b) Earnings Per Share
   (iii) Reduction of Capital                   (c) Control of Expenditure
   (iv) Basic & Diluted                          (d) Business Combination
   Codes :
            (i)    (ii)   (iii)   (iv)
   (A)   (c)   (d)   (b)   (a)
   (B)   (d)   (c)   (a)   (b)
   (C)   (d)   (a)   (c)   (b)
   (D)   (c)   (d)   (a)   (b)
13. Assertion (A) : Dividend paid out of pre-acquisition profit by the subsidiary company to the
      holding company is deducted from the cost of investment.
     Reason (R) : Dividend paid out of pre-acquisition profit by the subsidiary company should be
     treated as a return of capital to the holding company. Which one of the following is correct ?
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
    (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
    (C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
14. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
      Assertion (A) : Increasing the value of closing inventory increases profit.
      Reason (R) : Increasing the value of closing inventory reduces cost of goods sold.
                          In the context of the above two statements, which of the following is correct ?
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
    (B) Only (A) is correct.
    (C) Only (R) is correct.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
16. A measure of the responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in the price of a related
      good is known as
    (A) Cross Elasticity of Demand
    (B) Substitution Elasticity of Demand
    (C) Complementary Elasticity of Demand
    (D) Price Elasticity of Demand
17. If the total cost is ` 260 and the total variable cost is ` 60, what will be total fixed cost if output is (a) 100
     units and (b) 200 units ?
    (A) ` 200 and ` 200
    (B) ` 100 and ` 200
    (C) ` 260 and ` 100
    (D) ` 160 and ` 100
18. Optimal input combination to minimize the cost for a given output will be at the point where :
    (A) Isocost is tangent to Isoquant
    (B) MRTS between inputs is equal
    (C) Any movement from optimum point will lead to low level of output
    (D) All the above conditions are fulfilled.
19. What kinds of actions can be taken to put the rivals at a disadvantageous position under
     oligopoly market ?
    (A) Commitments
    (B) Threats
    (C) Promises
    (D) All the above
20. There is no exceptions to the law of demand in the case of
    (A) Giffen goods
    (B) Normal goods
    (C) Articles of conspicuous consumption
    (D) Ignorance of the buyer
21. What is the degree of elasticity of demand in case the demand is represented by a straight line
       parallel to the x-axis ?
    (A) e > 1
    (B) e = 0
    (C) e = ∝
    (D) e < 1
22. If a chi-square test is to be performed on a contingency table with 3 rows and 4 columns,
      how many degrees of freedom should be used ?
    (A) 6
    (B) 12
    (C) 8
    (D) 9
23. Assertion (A) : If regression coefficient of X on Y is greater than one, regression coefficient
                             of Y on X must be less than one.
      Reason (R) : The geometric mean between two regression coefficients is the co-efficient of correlation.
                          On the basis of the above, choose the appropriate answer :
    (A) (A) and (R) are correct.
    (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
    (C) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
24. If the sum of squares of deviations within samples is 140 with 12 degrees of freedom and the sum of
     squares of deviations between samples is 190 with 2 degrees of freedom, the test statistic will be
    (A) 81.4
    (B) 12.28
    (C) 8.14
    (D) 1.22
25. The regression equation of profits (X) on sales (Y) of a firm is given as : 3Y – 5X + 110 = 0.
      If the sales of the firm is ` 44,000, the profit will be
    (A) ` 23,370         (B) ` 26,422
    (C) ` 24,422         (D) ` 21,370
26. Cricketer ‘A’ scores on an average 40 runs with a standard deviation of 5. Scores of players ‘B’
      and ‘C’, on an average, are 75 and 90 with standard deviations 10 and 18 respectively.
     Arrange the players in the descending order of consistency :
    (A) A, B and C
    (B) C, B and A
    (C) B, A and C
    (D) C, A and B
27. Among the following, choose the most suitable ‘test’ that can be applied to examine the influence of
     one factor on different groups :
    (A) ‘t’ test
    (B) ‘F’ test
    (C) ‘Chi-square’ test
    (D) None of the above
28. A machine produced 20 defective articles in a batch of 400. After overhauling, it produced 10%
    defectives in a batch of 300. Which test of hypothesis can be applied to the above situation to examine
    whether the machine has improved ?
    (A) Test of significance of a sample proportion (two-tail test)
    (B) Test of significance of a sample proportion (one-tail test)
    (C) Test of significance of difference between two sample proportion (two-tail test)
    (D) Test of significance of difference between two sample proportion (one-tail test)
29. Strategies and policies
    (A) are not closely related
    (B) give direction
    (C) are the framework for performance appraisal
    (D) both (A) and (B)
30. According to Vroom’s Expectancy Theory of Motivation,
    (A) Force = valence divided by expectancy
    (B) Force = valence × expectancy
    (C) Force = strength of an individual preference for an outcome
    (D) Valence = probability that a particular action shall lead to a desired outcome
31. In the managerial grid, the managers who have little or no concern for production but are concerned only
     for people are known as what type of managers ?
    (A) 1.1 Management
    (B) 5.5 Management
    (C) 9.1 Management
    (D) 1.9 Management
32. According to the Boston Consulting group, a business, which has a strong market share in a low growth
     industry is referred to as a
    (A) Dog
    (B) Cash Cow
    (C) Star
    (D) Question mark
33. Which of the following are major principles of leading ?
    (i) Principle of motivation
    (ii) Principle of continuous development
    (iii) Principle of harmony of objectives
    (iv) Principle of open competition
    (v) Principle of communication clarity
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    Codes :
    (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
    (B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
    (C) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
    (D) (i), (iii), (v)
34. The following are the steps of management control process :
    (i) Taking corrective action from standards
    (ii) Establishing standards
    (iii) Measuring actual performance
    (iv) Comparing performance against standard
    Select the correct sequence of these steps from the codes given below :
    Codes :
    (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
    (B) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
    (C) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
    (D) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
35. Consider the following :
    (i) Planning is today’s action for tomorrow’s decision.
    (ii) Planning is forward looking while controlling is looking back.
    (iii) Motivation is about getting voluntary willingness of subordinates for action.
    (iv) Line and staff organisation is the oldest form of organisation.
    Select the correct statements from the codes given below :
    Codes :
    (A) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
    (B) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
    (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
    (D) All are correct.
36. Which is not one of the stages in the consumer buying-decision process ?
    (A) Purchase decision
    (B) Post-purchase behaviour
    (C) Problem recognition
    (D) Cultural factors
37. At which stage of product-life-cycle are the pricing decisions most complex ?
    (A) Decline
    (B) Growth
    (C) Introduction
    (D) Maturity
38. Which one is not an element of market logistics ?
    (A) Inventory
    (B) Order-processing
    (C) Warehousing
    (D) Supply chain management
39. Under which legislation, the manufacturers and distributors are required to declare Maximum Retail
     Price (MRP) on packaged commodities ?
    (A) The Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986
    (B) The Consumer Protection Act, 1986
    (C) The Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976
    (D) The Essential Commodities Act, 1955
40. In modern marketing, which of the following functions of a distribution middleman is
      gaining maximum importance ?
    (A) Making persuasive communication
    (B) Price negotiation
    (C) Keeping adequate inventory
    (D) Gathering market information
41. Which method of setting the advertising budget of a company is considered to be the most scientific ?
    (A) All-you-can-afford method
    (B) Percentage of sales method
    (C) Competitive-parity method
    (D) Objectives and tasks method
42. Match the items of List – I with those of List – II and indicate the correct combination from the
     codes given below :
                  List – I                                       List – II
     (i) AIDA Model                                 (a) Consumer behaviour
    (ii) Hierarchy of effects model              (b) Marketing communication
    (iii) Howard and Sheth model              (c) Consumer buyingdecision process
    (iv) Information search                        (d) Advertising effectiveness
    Codes :
             (i)   (ii)    (iii)   (iv)
    (A)   (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)
    (B)   (b)   (c)   (d)   (a)
    (C)   (b)   (d)   (a)   (c)
    (D)   (d)   (a)   (c)   (b)
43. Inability of the firm to meet its obligations results in financial distress which may lead to
     bankruptcy resulting into the following :
    1. Distress sale of assets at lower price.
    2. Legal and administrative costs for bankruptcy.
    3. Dilution of stakeholders’ commitment to the firm.
    4. Stretching of payments to suppliers and creditors.
    The direct costs of such financial distress may be
    (A) 1 and 4          (B) 2 and 3
    (C) 1 and 2          (D) 3 and 4
44. Mutually exclusive projects can be more accurately ranked as per
    (A) Internal rate of return method
    (B) Net Present Value Method
    (C) Modified Internal Rate of Returns Method
    (D) Accounting or Average Rate of Return Method
45. Which one of the following does not constitute a Standalone Risk Analysis ?
    (A) Simulation Analysis
    (B) Break-even Analysis
    (C) Corporate Risk Analysis
    (D) Scenario Analysis
46. Financial leverage in a firm is positively affected by
    (A) Intensity of tangible assets
    (B) Operating leverage
    (C) Profitability
    (D) Tax Rate
47. Which combination of the following two statements (A) and (R) is correct ?
     Assertion (A) : The IRR of a project is the discount rate which reduces its NPV to zero.
     Reason (R) : A project is worth accepting if the IRR exceeds the cost of capital.
    Codes :
    (A) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
    (C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
48. Assertion (A) : A company should pay minimum dividend to its shareholders.
     Reason (R) : Dividends are heavily taxed than capital gains.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
    (C) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
    (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
49. Dividend irrelevance hypothesis is implied in the
    (A) Traditional Model
    (B) Walter Model
    (C) Gordon Model
    (D) M.M. Model
50. Which one of the following does not serve the main objective of performance appraisal ?
    (A) Developmental uses
    (B) Administrative uses
    (C) Ethical and moral values
    (D) Organisational objectives
51. Statement (I) : Job evaluation is a technique of assessing the worth of each job in comparison with others
     throughout an organization.
    Statement (II) : Job evaluation and job rating are one and the same for employees’ appraisal purposes.
    Codes :
    (A) Statement (I) is correct, but Statement (II) is incorrect.
    (B) Statement (II) is correct, but Statement (I) is incorrect.
    (C) Both the Statements (I) and (II) are correct.
    (D) Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.
52. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and select the correct answer :
                List – I                                                List – II
    (i) Job Rotation                     (a) Involves conscious efforts, to organise tasks,
                                                     duties and responsibilities into a unit of work to
                                                     achieve certain objectives.
    (ii) Job Design                       (b) Involves movement of employees from job to job
    (iii) Job Evaluation                 (c) Seeks to improve both task efficiency and human
                                                      satisfaction and more opportunity for individual growth
    (iv) Job Enrichment                (d) The formal process by which the relative worth of
                                                      various jobs in the organisation is determined for pay purpose.
    Codes :
             (i)    (ii)   (iii)   (iv)
    (A)   (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)
    (B)   (d)   (c)   (b)   (a)
    (C)   (c)   (d)   (b)   (a)
    (D)   (b)   (a)   (d)   (c)
53. Assertion (A) : Merit rating of an employee is the process of evaluating the employees
                             performance on the job in terms of the requirements of the job.
     Reason (R) : Employees’ merit rating is a technique for fair and systematic evaluation of an
                        employee’s capacities and abilities and performance on the specific job.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
    (C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
    (D) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.
54. The major provisions for employees’ health and safety are contained in
    (A) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
    (B) The Factories Act, 1948
    (C) The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
    (D) The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923
55. Indicate your choice through the codes given below :
    1. A club is an industry under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
    2. Factory as defined under the Factories Act, 1948 includes a mine.
    3. For purpose of the payment of bonus to employees, the gross profits earned by a bank is to be
        calculated in the manner specified in Schedule – I of the Payment of the Bonus Act, 1965.
    4. Various labour laws do not apply to public sector undertakings.
    Codes :
    (A) While 1 and 2 are correct, others are not.
    (B) All the statements are correct.
    (C) Only 1 is correct, others are incorrect.
    (D) Only 1 is incorrect, all others are correct.
56. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and select the correct answer :
                        List – I                                      List – II
    (i) Abraham Maslow                    (a) Achievement Motivation Theory
    (ii) Herzberg                                 (b) ERG Theory
    (iii) Alderfer                                  (c) Two Factor Theory
    (iv) McClelland                             (d) Need Hierarchy Theory
    Codes :
             (i)    (ii)   (iii)   (iv)
    (A)   (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)
    (B)   (d)   (c)   (b)   (a)
    (C)   (c)   (b)   (a)   (d)
    (D)   (d)   (c)   (a)   (b)
57. Assertion (A) : The Central Bank of the country is responsible to maintain stability of the
                              monetary standard which involves currency circulation
     Reason (R) : The Central Bank is the only authorized entity to do so.
    Codes :
    (A) (A) and (R) both are correct.
    (B) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.
    (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
    (D) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.
58. Identify the quantitative credit control methods among the following :
    (i) Bank Rate
    (ii) Credit Rationing
    (iii) Open Market Operations
    (iv) Variable Reserve Ratio
    (v) Selective Credit Control
    (vi) Liquidity Ratio
    Codes :
    (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
    (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
    (C) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
    (D) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
59. The following activities are mainly related to which organization ?
    (i) Micro Finance
    (ii) Rural Finance
    (iii) Self Help Groups
    (iv) Cooperative Banks Finance
    (A) Industrial Finance Corporation of India
    (B) Ministry of Finance
    (C) Reserve Bank of India
    (D) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
60. PIN in banking transaction is known as
    (A) Postal Index Number
    (B) Permanent Identification Number
    (C) Personal Identification Number
    (D) Public Interlocking Numeric
61. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on
    (A) January 26, 1948
    (B) January 01, 1949
    (C) January 26, 1950
    (D) January 01, 1956
62. When a banking company is placed under moratorium under Section 45 of the Banking
     (Regulation) Act, 1949, the RBI must prepare a scheme of
    (A) VRS for staff
    (B) Capital Buy-Back
    (C) Reconstruction of the company or amalgamation with any other bank
    (D) IPO of the bank
63. Match the following items of List – I with List – II :
                   List – I                                             List – II
    (i) SWIFT                                                   (a) 1996
    (ii) NEFT                                                    (b) 1988
    (iii) BASEL I Accord                                  (c) 1973
    (iv) BASEL II Accord                                (d) 2004
    Codes :
             (i)   (ii)    (iii)   (iv)
    (A)   (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)
    (B)   (b)   (c)   (a)   (d)
    (C)   (d)   (c)   (b)   (a)
    (D)   (c)   (a)   (d)   (b)
64. The main features of TRIMS are :
    (i) All restrictions on foreign capital are imposed.
    (ii) No restriction is imposed on any area of investment.
    (iii) Restrictions on repatriation of dividend is eliminated.
    (iv) Imports of raw material is allowed freely.
    (v) No limit on the extent of foreign investment.
     Indicate the correct combination
    (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
    (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
    (C) (iii), (iv) and (v)
    (D) (iv) and (v)
65. Assertion (A) : TRIPS requires an understanding about the scope of the new patent regime.
      Reason (R) : Patent protection will be extended to micro organisms, non-biological and
                           micro-biological processes and plant varieties.
    Codes :
    (A) (A) and (R) are not related with each other.
    (B) (R) is related with (A).
    (C) (A) is independent of (R).
    (D) While (R) is related with TRIMS, (A) is related with TRIPS.
66. Possible impact of WTO on various aspects of the Indian economy :
    (i) Quantitative restriction will be allowed.
    (ii) Second hand cars will be imported.
    (iii) There will be dumping of Chinese goods.
    (iv) Increase in population.
    (v) Child labour exploitation
    (vi) Unemployment will increase
    Which combination is appropriate ?
    (A) (i), (ii), (iii)
    (B) (iii), (iv), (v)
    (C) (ii), (iii) & (vi)
    (D) (iv), (v) & (vi)
67. Assertion (A) : Economic integration abolishes crossnational economic discrimination.
      Reason (R) : Geographical proximity is an important reason for economic integration.
     Codes :
    (A) (R) does explain (A).
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
    (C) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
    (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
68. Match the items of List – I and items of List – II and select the correct answer :
                   List – I                                    List – II
    (i) Free Trade Area                             (a) MERCOSUR
    (ii) Customs Union                              (b) European Union
    (iii) OEEC                                          (c) EFTA
    (iv) Common Market                          (d) Marshall Plan
    Codes :
             (i)   (ii)    (iii)   (iv)
    (A)   (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)
    (B)   (b)   (d)   (a)   (c)
    (C)   (c)   (a)   (d)   (b)
    (D)   (d)   (c)   (b)   (a)
69. Assertion (A) : A futures contract specifies in advance the exchange rate to be used, but it
                             is not as flexible as a forward contract.
      Reason (R) : A futures contract is for specific currency amount and a specific maturity date.
    Codes :
    (A) (R) is a correct explanation of (A).
    (B) (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
    (C) (A) and (R) are not related with each other.
    (D) (R) is irrelevant for (A).
70. Out of the following, which are the important objectives of IMF ?
    (i) To promote exchange rate stability
    (ii) To create standby reserves
    (iii) To print International currency notes
    (iv) To establish a multilateral system of payments.
    (v) To maintain orderly exchange rate stability
    (vi) To create employment
    Codes :
    (A) (ii), (iv), (v), (vi)
    (B) (iii), (v), (vi)
    (C) (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
    (D) (i), (ii), (v), (vi)
71. Given that : Fair rent of a let out house property is ` 75,000. Its Municipal value is ` 60,000,
      standard rent is ` 72,000 and actual rent received is ` 63,000. What is the Gross Annual Value of
      this house property ?
     (A) ` 60,000                  (B) ` 63,000
     (C) ` 72,000                  (D) ` 75,000
72. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II
                           List – I                                   List – II
    (i) Amount deposited in PPF                          (a) 80-IA
    (ii) Profits and gains from undertakings
        engaged in infrastructure development         (b) 80 G
    (iii) Contribution to National Defence
          Fund                                                        (c) 80-IAB
    (iv) Profits and gains by an undertaking
          engaged in the development of
          Special Economic Zone                            (d) 80-C
     Codes :
             (i)    (ii)   (iii)   (iv)
    (A)   (d)   (c)   (b)   (a)
    (B)   (d)   (a)   (b)   (c)
    (C)   (d)   (a)   (c)   (b)
    (D)   (b)   (a)   (c)   (d)
73. Which of the following deductions will not come under Sec. 80 of the Income Tax Act ?
    (A) Deduction in the case of a person with disability
    (B) Deduction for interest paid on loan taken for pursuing higher education
    (C) Deduction for interest on loan taken for the construction / purchase of house property
    (D) Deduction for repayment of any instalment of principal amount borrowed for the
          purchase / construction of house property
74. X purchased a land in the P.Y. 1997- 98 for ` 50,000. This land was sold by him during the
      P.Y. 2009-10 for ` 8,00,000. The fair market value of this land on 1-4-81 was ` 1,20,000. If
      the Cost Inflation Index for the A.Y. 2010-11 is 632, his capital gain for the A.Y. 2010-11 will be
    (A) ` 4,84,000
    (B) ` 7,50,000
    (C) ` 6,80,000
    (D) ` 41,600
75. Any amount of money received in excess of ` 50,000 without consideration is fully taxable in the
      hands of
    (A) Individuals
    (B) Individuals and HUF
    (C) Individuals, HUF and Company
    (D) All assessees

UGC NET DEC 2013 SOLVED COMMERCE PAPER II

                           LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAL
                                     UGC NET DEC 2013 SOLVED COMMERCE PAPER II

                                                                    COMMERCE
                                                                       PAPER-II
1. Who is the fiscal agent and advisor to Government in monetary and financial matters ?
    (A) NABARD
    (B) SBI
    (C) RBI
    (D) None of the above
2. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II :
            List – I                                                                List – II
    (a) National Manufacturing                            (i) Industrial Licensing Policy   
         Competitiveness Council (NMCC)
    (b) National Investment Fund (NIP)              (ii) Eleventh Five Year Plan
    (c) The Industries (Development
         and Regulation) Act (IDRA), 1951           (iii) The Competition Act, 2002
    (d) Increase in Employment                           (iv) Public Sector Undertakings
     Codes :
             (a)    (b)   (c)    (d)
    (A)   (iv)    (i)    (ii)    (iii)
    (B)   (iii)   (iv)    (i)     (ii)
    (C)   (i)     (ii)   (iii)    (iv)
    (D)  (iv)    (iii)   (ii)     (i)
3. Kyoto Protocol pertains to
    (A) Capital formulation
    (B) Globalisation
    (C) Environmental protection
    (D) Unemployment reduction
4. Uruguay Round pertains to
    (A) WTO
    (B) IMF
    (C) GATT
    (D) World Bank
5. Which of the following are outside the scope of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 ?
    (A) Newspaper industry
    (B) Services provided under contract of personal service
    (C) Banking industry
    (D) Both (A) and (B)
6. Which of the following is ‘true’ regarding the Prudence Principle of Accounting ?
    (A) Taking care of the future losses
    (B) Taking care of the future profits
    (C) Taking care of bad debts
    (D) Taking care of inventory and depreciation
7. Which of the following is a non-operating expense ?
    (A) Salary of Managing Director
    (B) Depreciation
    (C) Advertisement expenditure
    (D) Interest on loan
8. A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their books showed goodwill at ` 3,000. C is
    admitted with 14 th share of profits and brings ` 10,000 as his capital. But he is not able to bring in
    cash  for his share of goodwill ` 3,000. How will you treat this ?
    (A) Goodwill is raised by ` 12,000
    (B) C will remain as debtor for ` 3,000
    (C) C’s A/c. is debited for ` 3,000
    (D) Goodwill is raised by ` 9,000
9. If there is mutual indebtedness between the transferor company and the transferee company in business
    combination, which of the following is correct ?
    (A) No adjustment is required in the books of the transferor company.
    (B) Adjustment is required in the books of the transferor company.
    (C) No adjustment is required in the books of the transferee company.
    (D) None of the above
10. Improvement of profit-volume ratio can be done by
    (A) Increasing selling price
    (B) Altering sales mixture
    (C) Reducing variable cost
    (D) All of the above
11. Business Economics is a subject which
    (A) studies economic relationships
    (B) studies economic activities at the aggregate level
    (C) deals with the tools of economics used for decision making in business
    (D) studies optimum allocation of limited resources
12. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct code for the answer :
               List – I                                           List – II
    (a) Cross elasticity is zero                    (i) Price = AVC
    (b) Shut-down point                           (ii) Two commodities are independent
    (c) Slutsky theorem                            (iii) Transformation line
    (d) Production Possibility Curve         (iv) Substitution effect
    Codes :
             (a)   (b)   (c)  (d)
    (A)   (ii)   (iv)   (i)   (iii)
    (B)   (iii)   (ii)   (iv)   (i)
    (C)   (i)    (iii)   (ii)   (iv)
    (D)   (ii)    (i)   (iv)   (iii)
13. Assertion (A) : The demand curve has negative slope showing inverse relationship between
     price and the quantity demanded. Reason (R) : This applies only to Giffen goods.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
    (B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    (C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
 14. The consumer is said to be in equilibrium when he plans his expenditure on x, y and z
      commodities in such a way that he ultimately attains :
15. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and select the correct code for the answer :
               List – I                                              List – II
    (a) Monopoly                                         (i) Price Taker
    (b) Monopolistic competition                  (ii) Homogeneous product’s price maker
    (c) Perfect competition                           (iii) Heterogeneous product
    (d) Oligopoly                                         (iv) Price Rigidity
    Codes :
             (a)  (b)   (c)   (d)
    (A)   (ii)   (iii)   (i)   (iv)
    (B)   (i)    (ii)   (iv)  (iii)
    (C)  (iii)   (iv)  (ii)    (i)
    (D)  (iv)    (i)  (iii)   (ii)
16. Match the following items in List – I with most suitable options in List – II :
             List – I                                            List – II
    (a) Fisher                                            (i) Inverse probability
    (b) Karl Pearson                                (ii) Normal Distribution
    (c) Thomas Baye’s                            (iii) Correlation Coefficient
    (d) Karl Gauss                                  (iv) Index Numbers
    Codes :
         (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A)   (iv)   (iii)   (ii)   (i)
    (B)   (iv)   (iii)   (i)    (ii)
    (C)   (iv)    (ii)  (iii)  (i)
    (D)   (iv)    (ii)   (i)  (iii)
17. The law of statistics, which says ‘Moderately large number of items chosen at random from a large group
      possess the characteristics of the large group’, is referred to as :
    (A) The Central Limit Theorem
    (B) The Law of Statistical Regularity
    (C) The Law of Inertia of Large Numbers
    (D) None of the above
18. A distribution, where the value of arithmetic mean is maximum as compared to median and mode, is
    (A) Normal distribution
    (B) Positively-skewed distribution
    (C) Negatively-skewed distribution
    (D) None of these
19. The most appropriate average to be used to compute the average rate of growth in population is
    (A) Arithmetic mean
    (B) Median
    (C) Geometric mean
    (D) Harmonic mean
20. “The life expectancy of people in Kerala is more than that of Tamil Nadu.” This statement is an
     example of
    (A) Descriptive Hypothesis
    (B) Causal Hypothesis
    (C) Correlational Hypothesis
    (D) None of the above
21. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and choose the correct answer :
             List – I                                                    List – II
    (a) Intrapersonal communication                (i) Information sharing
    (b) Element of a communication event       (ii) Development of ‘will’ to work
    (c) Objective of organisational                
         communication                                   (iii) Thinking
    (d) Goals of organisational
          communication                                  (iv) Purpose

    Codes :
            (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)
    (A)   (i)   (ii)   (iii)   (iv)
    (B)   (iii)  (iv)  (ii)    (i)
    (C)   (ii)  (iii)   (i)    (iv)
    (D)   (iv) (iii)   (ii)    (i)
22. According to the Boston Consulting Group, a business which has a high growth rate but a weak
      market  share is referred to as a
    (A) Cash Cow
    (B) Dog
    (C) Question Mark
    (D) Star
23. ‘No ideas are ever criticized’ and ‘the more radical the ideas are the better’ – are the rules of
      which decision making process ?
     (A) Programmed decision-making
    (B) Non-programmed decision making
    (C) Brainstorming
    (D) Group discussion
24. According to McClelland’s Needs Theory, which of the following is not a motivating need ?
    (A) Need for Power
    (B) Need for Security
    (C) Need for Achievement
    (D) Need for Affiliation
25. In the managerial grid, developed by Blake and Mouton, a manager who has high consideration
     for production but little concern for people is known as
    (A) 1.1 Management
    (B) 1.9 Management
    (C) 9.1 Management
    (D) 5.5 Management
26. Which of the following is not the major component of holistic marketing ?
    (A) Relationship marketing
    (B) Integrated marketing
    (C) Customer satisfaction
    (D) Socially-responsible marketing
27. Which of the legislations listed below do not form part of the marketing environment of India ?
    (A) The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
    (B) The Prevention of Food and Adulteration Act, 1954
    (C) The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969
    (D) Both (B) and (C)
28. The set of all actual and potential buyers of a product is known as
    (A) Customer group
    (B) Industry
    (C) Market
    (D) None of the above
29. In the model of consumer behaviour given by Philip Kotler, what constitutes the marketing stimuli ?
    (A) Marketing environment
    (B) Four P’s of marketing
    (C) Consumer needs and wants
    (D) None of the above
30. The factor that exerts the broadest and deepest influence on consumer behaviour is
    (A) Culture
    (B) Sub-culture
    (C) Social class
    (D) Income
31. Which one of the following is not among the assumptions of the Modigliani-Miller model ?
    (A) Perfect capital market
    (B) Equivalent risk classes
    (C) Unity for dividend payout ratio
    (D) Absence of taxes
32. The most suitable coverage ratio for deciding the debt capacity of a firm is
    (A) Interest Coverage Ratio
    (B) Cash Flow Coverage Ratio
    (C) Debt Service Coverage Ratio
    (D) Fixed Assets Coverage Ratio
33. Which one of the following is the most popular method for estimating the cost of equity ?
    (A) Capital asset pricing model
    (B) Dividend yield method
    (C) Gordon’s dividend discount model
    (D) Earnings yield method
34. Which one of the following is not the internal factor affecting the weighted average cost of capital
     of a firm ?
    (A) Investment policy of the firm
    (B) Capital structure of the firm
    (C) Dividend policy followed
    (D) Market risk premium for the firm
35. Most common approach for analysing the capital structure of a firm is
    (A) Ratio Analysis
    (B) Cash Flow Analysis
    (C) Comparative Analysis
    (D) Leverage Analysis
36. Who propounded “Theory Z” ?
    (A) William Ouchi
    (B) Peter F. Drucker
    (C) Joseph H. Jurau
    (D) Douglas McGregor
37. Another name for MATRIX organisation is
    (A) Flexible organisation
    (B) Geographic organisation
    (C) Project organisation
    (D) None of the above
38. Which of the following are methods of on-the-job training ?
    (i) Coaching
    (ii) Vestibule training
   (iii) Demonstration
   (iv) Role-playing
   (v) Apprenticeship training
    Select the right answer from the following codes :
    (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
    (B) (i), (iii), (v)
    (C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
    (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
39. The idea that a manager tends to be promoted to the level of his incompetence is referred to as
    (A) The advancement principle
    (B) The Parkinson’s law
    (C) The Peter principle
    (D) The job design principle
40. Assertion (A) : The emphasis in industrial psychology has shifted from the studies of the
     isolated individual and the physical environment to the consideration of motivation and morale.
    Reason (R) : A motivated employee with a high morale will always give high productivity.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
    (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
    (C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
41. Match the following items of List – I and List – II in terms of functions of commercial banks :
              List – I                                    List – II
    (a) Letter of reference                 (i) Advancing loans
    (b) Sale of gold coins                  (ii) Receiving deposits
    (c) Recurring Account                (iii) Non-banking function
    (d) Overdrafts                            (iv) Agency function
    Codes :
             (a)  (b)  (c)    (d)
    (A)   (i)   (ii)   (iii)   (iv)
    (B)   (iv) (iii)   (ii)    (i)
    (C)   (iv) (ii)   (iii)    (i)
    (D)    (i) (iii)    (ii)   (iv)
42. Which of the following are included under representation functions of a bank ?
    (i) Payment of cheques and bills
    (ii) Providing remittance facilities
   (iii) Underwriting of securities
   (iv) Advancing clean credit
   (v) Allowing overdrafts on current account
   (vi) Purchase and sale of securities
   Codes :
    (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
    (B) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
    (C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi)
    (D) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)
43. Call money rate is applicable for a very short period to
    (A) Inter bank advances
    (B) Bank to Reserve Bank advances
    (C) Reserve Bank to Bank advances
    (D) Commercial Banks to Industrial Banks advances
44. Match the following List – I with List – II :
                   List – I                                             List – II
        (Name of Securities)                            (Type of Securities)
   (a) Bonds of Land                            (i) Semi- GovernmentSecurities
       Development Banks 
   (b) Treasury Bills                              (ii) First Order Securities
   (c) Shares of a Public Ltd. Co.         (iii) Personal Securities
   Codes :
           (a)   (b)   (c)
   (A)   (i)   (ii)   (iii)
   (B)   (ii)   (i)   (iii)
   (C)  (iii ) (ii)    (i)
   (D)  (i)   (iii)   (ii)
45. Reserve Bank of India controls the
activities of some of the following
banks in India :
(i) Commercial Banks
(ii) Cooperative Banks
(iii) Foreign Banks
(iv) Rural Banks
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
46. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer:
                   List – I                                                  List – II
    (a) Comparative Cost Theory of
          International Trade                            (i) Gottfried Haberler
    (b) International Trade Theory
         of Opportunity Cost                           (ii) J.S. Mill
    (c) Factor Endowment
         Theory of International Trade             (iii) David Ricardo
    (d) Doctrine of Reciprocal Demand         (iv) Hecksher- Ohlin
    Codes :
             (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)
    (A)   (iii)   (ii)   (iv)   (i)
    (B)    (i)   (iii)   (ii)   (iv)
    (C)   (iii)   (i)   (iv)   (ii)
    (D)   (ii)    (i)   (iv)  (iii)
47. Identify the one, from the following, which is not a type of disequilibrium in the balance of
      payments of a country :
    (A) Cyclical disequilibrium
    (B) Secular disequilibrium
    (C) Structural disequilibrium
    (D) Sectoral disequilibrium
48. The participants who take advantage of different exchange rates in different markets are
    (A) Speculators
    (B) Arbitrageurs
    (C) Hedgers
    (D) Investors
49. Assertion (A) : The liability of the option buyer is limited in the currency options market.
      Reason (R) : Option buyer need not exercise the option if the exchange rate is not favourable for him.
    Codes :
    (A) (R) is correct and (A) is wrong.
    (B) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.
    (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
50. An MNC that maintains a balance between the home market and host market oriented policies is
    (A) Ethnocentric firm
    (B) Polycentric firm
    (C) Geocentric firm
    (D) None of the above