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Friday, 11 December 2015

UGC NET Solved Paper -I June 2015


UGC NET Solved Paper -I June 2015

UGC NET Solved Paper -I June 2015

1. Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability ?
(1) Knowing (2) Understanding (3) Analysing (4) Evaluating
2. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching ?
(1) Teacher’s knowledge
(2) Class room activities that encourage learning
(3) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
(4) Learning through experience
3. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct ?
(a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.
(b) They help students learn better.
(c) They make teaching learning process interesting.
(d) They enhance rote learning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
4. Techniques used by a teacher to teach include :
(a) Lecture
(b) Interactive lecture
(c) Group work
(d) Self study
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
5. Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of :
(1) Making selections for a specific job
(2) Selecting candidates for a course
(3) Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners
(4) Assessing the amount of learning after teaching
6. A good teacher is one who:
(1) gives useful information
(2) explains concepts and principles
(3) gives printed notes to students
(4) inspires students to learn
7. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are correct ?
(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the solution of a problem.
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of hypothesis, data analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done.
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth.
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
 (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
8. A good thesis writing should involve :
(a) reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum.
(b) careful checking of references.
(c) consistency in the way the thesis is written.
(d) a clear and well written abstract.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
9. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of his :
(1) Fundamental Research (2) Applied Research
(3) Action Research (4) Evaluation Research
10. “Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test.” This statement
indicates a :
(1) research hypothesis (2) null hypothesis
(3) directional hypothesis (4) statistical hypothesis
11. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other
situations ?
(1) Historical Research (2) Descriptive Research
(3) Experimental Research (4) Causal Comparative Research
12. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire ?
(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study.
(b) Review of the current literature.
(c) Prepare a draft of questionnaire.
(d) Revision of the draft.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 13 to 18.
Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary history. It is the essence of what makes us Human.
Human beings progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety of stories being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ greatly. Which stories are picked up and repeated and which ones are dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress. Our history, knowledge and understanding are all the collections of the few stories that survive. This includes the stories that we tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively choose to believe.
Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is because some story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some tensions. Some stories are frightening, they are like totemic warnings : “Fail to act now and we are all doomed.” Then there are stories that indicate that all will be fine so long as we leave everything upto a few especially able adults. Currently, this trend is being led by those who call themselves “rational optimists”. They tend to claim that it is human nature to compete and to succeed and also to profit at the expense of others. The rational optimists however, do not realize how humanity has progressed overtime through amiable social networks and how large groups work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and poor, high and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered by the ‘Practical Possibles’, who sit between those who say all is fine and cheerful and be individualistic in your approach to a successful future, and those who ordain pessimism and fear that we are doomed. What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and how we act on them.
Answer the following questions :
13. Our knowledge is a collection of:
(1) all stories that we have heard during our life-time
(2) some stories that we remember
(3) a few stories that survive
(4) some important stories
14. Story telling is:
(1) an art    (2) a science    (3) in our genes     (4) the essence of what makes us human
15. How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories ?
(1) We collectively choose to believe in
(2) Which are repeatedly narrated
(3) Designed to spread fear and tension
(4) Designed to make prophecy
16. Rational optimists :
(a) Look for opportunities.
(b) Are sensible and cheerful.
(c) Are selfishly driven.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) 
(2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (b) and (c) only
17. Humans become less selfish when:
(1) they work in large groups
(2) they listen to frightening stories
(3) they listen to cheerful stories
(4) they work in solitude
18. ‘Practical Possibles’ are the ones who :
(1) follow Midway Path (2) are doom-mongers
(3) are self-centred (4) are cheerful and carefree
19. Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following ?
(a) Attitude surveys
(b) Performance records
(c) Students attendance
(d) Selection of communication channel
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) 
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
20. Assertion (A) : Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible.
Reason (R) : Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow of information.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but, (R) is correct
21. Which of the following are the characteristic features of communication ?
(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.
(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(c) Communication is a continuous process.
(d) Communication is a circular process.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
22. The term ‘grapevine’ is also known as :
(1) Downward communication
(2) Informal communication
(3) Upward communication
(4) Horizontal communication
23. Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication ?
(1) Persuasive and convincing dialogue
(2) Participation of the audience
(3) One-way transfer of information
(4) Strategic use of grapevine
24. In communication, the language is :
(1) The verbal code (2) Intrapersonal
(3) The symbolic code (4) The non-verbal code
25. The next term in the series is:
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
(1) 73 (2) 75 (3) 78 (4) 80
26. In certain code MATHURA is coded as JXQEROX. The code of HOTELS will be :
(1) LEQIBP (2) ELQBIP (3) LEBIQP (4) ELIPQB
27. One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south, turned right and walked 5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and turned left and walked 10 km. How many km will he have to walk to reach his home straight ?
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) 30
28. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is
related to the girl as:
(1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Nephew (4) Son
29. In an examination 10,000 students appeared. The result revealed the number of students who have :
passed in all five subjects                           =  5583
passed in three subjects only                    =  1400
passed in two subjects only                       =  1200
passed in one subject only                         =  735
failed in English only                                  =  75
failed in Physics only                                 =  145
failed in Chemistry only                            =  140
failed in Mathematics only                       =   200
failed in Bio-science only                          =   157
The number of students passed in at least four subjects is :
(1) 6300 (2) 6900 (3) 7300 (4) 7900
30. At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years older than his wife. After
3 years the age of the son will be 15 years. The age of the person’s wife after 5 years will
be:
(1) 42 (2) 48 (3) 45 (4) 50
31. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must rely on reason of the type:

(1) Inductive (2) Deductive (3) Demonstrative (4) Physiological
32. A deductive argument is invalid if:
(1) Its premises and conclusions are all false
(2) Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
(3) Its premises are false but its conclusion is true
(4) Its premises and conclusions are all true
33. Inductive reasoning is grounded on :
(1) Integrity of nature (2) Unity of nature
(3) Uniformity of nature 
(4) Harmony of nature
34. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select the correct code that represents them :
Statements :
(a) All poets are philosophers.
(b) Some poets are philosophers.
(c) Some poets are not philosophers.
(d) No philosopher is a poet.
Codes :
(1) (a)and(b)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) 
(4) (b) and (c)
35. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements ?
Select the code :
Statements :
(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.
(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.
(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.
(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) 
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
36. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the definition
is called:
(1) Stipulative
(2) Theoretical
(3) Lexical
(4) Persuasive
Codes:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
Question numbers 37 to 42 are based on the tabulated data given below :
A company has 20 employees with their age (in years) and salary (in thousand rupees per month) mentioned against each of them :
S.NoAge (in years)Salary (in Thousand rupees per month)S.noAge (in years)Salary (in Thousand rupees per month)
1.443511.3330
2.322012.3135
3.544513.3035
4.423514.3740
5.312015.4445
6.536016.3635
7.425017.3435
8.515518.4950
9.342519.4345
10.413020.4550
37. Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5 years. Which class interval of 5 years has the maximum average salary ?
(1) 35-40 years (2) 40 – 45 years (3) 45 – 50 years (4) 50 – 55 years
38. What is the frequency (%) in the class interval of 30 – 35 years ?
(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 30% (4) 35%
39. What is the average age of the employees ?
(1) 40.3 years (2) 38.6 years (3) 47.2 years (4) 45.3 years
40. What is the fraction (%) of employees getting salary ≥ 40,000 per month ?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 35% (4) 32%
41. What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age group 40 – 50 years ?
(1) 35 (2) 42.5 (3) 40.5 (4) 36.5
42. What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the average salary of all the employees?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 55% (4) 47%
43. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known as :
(1) Protection (2) Detection (3) Encryption (4) Decryption
44. Which of the following is not an output device ?
(1) Printer (2) Speaker (3) Monitor (4) Keyboard
45. Which of the following represents one billion characters ?
(1) Kilobyte (2) Megabyte (3) Gigabyte (4) Terabyte
46. Which of the following is not open source software ?
(1) Internet explorer (2) Fedora Linux
(3) Open office (4) Apache HTTP server
47. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 25 ?
(1) 10101 (2) 01101 (3) 11001 (4) 11011
48. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting ?
(1) Altavista (2) MAC (3) Microsoft Office (4) Google Talk
49. In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum ?
(1) USA (2) European Union
(3) China (4) India
50. India’s contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about:
(1) -3% (2) -6% (3) -10% (4) -15%
51. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be approximately :
(1) ~8 (2) -16 (3) -32 (4) -64
52. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources ?
(1) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
(2) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
(3) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
(4) Oil, forests and tides
53. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not included ?
(1) Carbon monoxide (2) Fine particulate matter
(3) Ozone (4) Chlorofluorocarbons
54. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities on environment are:
(1) Population, affluence per person, land available per person
(2) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
(3) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
(4) Population, forest cover and land available per person
55. The session of the parliament is summoned by :
(1) The President
(2) The Prime Minister
(3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(4) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
56. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on :
(1) 21st April (2) 24th April (3) 21st June (4) 7th July
57. The South Asia University is situated in the city of :
(1) Colombo (2) Dhaka (3) New Delhi (4) Kathmandu
58. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims ?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
59. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015) is about:
(1) 8 percent (2) 12 percent (3) 19 percent (4) 23 percent
60. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was :
(1) 08 (2) 14 (3) 27 (4) 43

Saturday, 14 March 2015

12th commerce important questions 2015

                              LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAL

 12th STANDARD COMMERCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

 

20 - MARKS


01. Describe the various forms of business organisation.
02. Explain the main characteristics or features of sole trading form of organisation?
03. One man control is the best in the world provided that one man is big enough to take care of
      every thing" discuss
04. Explain the role of sole trading concern in the society?
05. Explain the rights and duties of partner?
06. What are the circumstances under which a partnership firm is dissolved?
07. Write any ten advantages of partnership?
08. What do you understand by multinational companies explain its features with examples?
09. Explain eight types of co-operative societies in detail?
10. Distinguish between joint stock company and co-operative societies in detail?
11. Explain clearly the important features of co-operative society?

8- Marks


01. Write short note on joint hindu family business
02. On what reason study of organisation is important?
03. What are the procedure for registration of a partnership firm.
04. Explain the position of minor in the partnership firm.
05. Describe the various kinds of partners?
06. Write any ten difference between shares and debentures
07. Write a note on guarantee companies?
08. What is memorandum of Association? what are its contents?
09. Write a note on irregular allotment
10. Difference between Investors and speculators?
11. Explain the different types of speculators.
12. Explain the types of agricultural credit society?
13. What are the steps involved in forming a co-operative societies
14. What are the difference between public and private sector?
15.  What are the features of public corporation?

 4- Marks

01. Define organisation
02. Who is KARTHA?
03. State the meaning of Board Organisation?
04. What do you mean by co-ordination?
05. What is unlimited liablity?
06. What is sole proprietorship business?
07. What is partnership deed?
08. Define implied authority of a partner?
09. What is joint and several liablity?
10. Define debentures?
11. What is a guarantee company?
12. Define debentures?
13. What is meant by perpetual succession?
14. What is patronage dividend?
15. what is meant by one man one vote?
16. What is agriculture credit society?
17. Aims of cooperative society?
18. Define government company?
19. How can we establish state enterprises?
20. What was the role of government in the past?


Friday, 13 March 2015

12th standard commerce public model exam question paper


                   LEAD BY KNOWLEDGE COACHING CENTRE AND TUTORIAl                           PUBLIC MODEL EXAM – 2015

                                         PART - III
                                     COMMERCE
Time Allowed: 3 Hours]                                                                         [Maximum Marks : 200
Note: Answer all the questions.
I. Choose the correct answers:
1. A multinational company is also known as
   a. Global giant                                           b. Partnership
  c. Co-operative society                              d. Public corporation

2. Co-operative society can be started
a. Only in villages                                       b. In towns and villages
c. Only in cities                                           d. Only in State headquarters

3. The liability of a soletrader is:
a) Limited only to his investment in the business
b) Limited to total property of the business
c) Unlimited

4. A partnership firm may be registered under
a) 1949 Act                                 b) 1956 Act                           c) 1932 Act

5. In partnership there exists a relationship of
a) principal and agent                b) owner and servant             c) employer and employee

6. No division of work in
a) Sole trading                           b) partnership                         c) joint stock company

7. A private limited company can commence business
    a) immediately on receiving the certificate of incorporation
    b) only after the certificate of commencement of business is received
    c) on getting name approval from the Registrar
    d) on filing all the documents necessary for formation with the Registrar

8. Table A of the Companies Act is a
a) model minutes book                                                b) model form of balance sheet
c) model of Articles of Association                            d) model of memorandum of association

9. A preference share has priority in
    a) dividend only                                       
    b) only in return of capital at the time of winding up
    c) voting rights
    d) both dividend and return of capital on winding up

10. A company should compulsorily appoint a qualified company secretary, having a paid
      up capital of more than
     a) Rs. 5 Lakh                                                                    b) Rs.50 Lakh
    c) Rs.25 Lakh                                                                   d) Rs.15 Lakh

11. Who can call Extraordinary General Meeting ?
    a) Company Law Tribunal
    b) Board of Directors on its own or on the requisition of members
    c) By the requisitionists themselves on Board’s failure to convene
   d) all of these

12. A person can hold directorship of not more than _________ public limited companies
   a) 10                                 b) 15                        c) 20                 d) limitless

13. A bull operator believes in
   a) Increase in prices                                                          b) Decrease in prices
   c) Stability in prices                                                          d) No change in prices

14. A stock exchange is a place to
    a) Exchange one security for another
    b) Buy and sell financial securities
    c) Float new shares
    d) Buy and sell stock of goods

15. Stock exchange allow trading in
   a) All types of shares of any company                                 b) Bonds issued by the Government
   c) Listed securities                                                               d) Unlisted securities

16. The basic objective of a co-operative society is.
   a). Earn profit
   b)  Organise some essential service for the benefit of its member
   c)  Organize essential services to the community.
   d)  Arrange for enough of quality goods for the community

17. Central Co-operative bank is established at
      a. Villages                                                                               b. Districts
      c. State head quarters                                                              d. Urban areas

18. In a public corporation the management has
a) Limited freedom                                                                       b) No freedom of action
c) Controlled freedom                                                                d) Unrestricted freedom of action.

19. In a government company the share capital of the government must not be less than
      a) 51%                        b) 60%                        c) 75%                    d) 90%

20. Heavy, basic and defence  are reserved for
     a) Public sector           b) Private sector          c) both public and private


II. Fill in the blanks

21. Government policy is also favourable towards     _____________

22. Line of authority must proceed from the highest executive to the worker at the bottom
      level through a downward flow. This is known as  -------------------------

23. Delegation means the ___________ of part of the work

24. Sole proprietorship is the -------------------- from of organisation

25. The life of the sole trader business is --------------- and ---------------------

26. A partner who does not take part in the working of the firm is called_________ partner.

27. The partners liability in India is _______________

28.  Every partner has the right to receive interest on loans and advances  at the rate of -----
       per annum..

29.  A private company should have at least _________directors.

30.  The minimum number of members in a private company is _____

31. An advertisement inviting the public to buy the debenture of a  public company
       is known as _____________

32. Altering the Articles of Association requires ___________ Resolution

33. The minimum number of members required for a meeting is known as __________________

34. The notice calling the annual general meeting, must, be given to all its members at least _______________ days before the date of the  meeting.

35. Debentures denote ________________ interest.

36. Companies are assisted by _____________to make new issues.
37. Management of a Co-operative Society is fully _______________

38. An industrial co-operative is organized by _________________

39. The most suitable form of organisation for manufacturing defence goods is --------------

40. Public corporations are managed by a ___________nominated by the Government

                  
                                                      PART – B
Note:  (i) Answer any ten questions
          (ii) Answer to each questions should not exceed four lines

41. What is scalar principle?

42. State the meaning of Board organization

43. What is a sole proprietorship business?

44. Define implied authority of a partner

45. What is meant by perpetual succession?

46. What is the significance of the common seal of the company?

47. What do you mean by quorum?

48. What is meant by resolutions requiring special notice?

49.  What is a special resolution?

50.  What is ‘private placement’?

51. What is minimum subscription?

52. What is the significance of ‘self help and mutual help’?

53. What is agricultural credit society?

54. Define state enterprises?

55. How do the state enterprises bring in balanced economic growth? 

                                     PART – C
Note: (i) Answer any five questions
          (ii) Answer to each question should not exceed one page
56. On what reasons study of organisation is important?

57. Explain the procedure for registration of a partnership firm.

58. State briefly the contents of Articles of Association.

59. What do you understand by Holding and Subsidiary Companies ?

60. State the differences between Managing director and Manager

61. Differentiate between Investors and speculators.

62. Briefly explain the demerits of co-operative societies

63. What are the features of a public corporation?

                                                   PART – D
Note : (i) Answer all the questions
          (ii) Answer to each question should not exceed two pages

64. Describe the various types of business organization

                                      OR
     Discuss the features, merits and demerits of the Departmental organizations

65. One man control is the best in the world provided that one man is big enough
      to take care of everythingDiscuss

                                       OR
      Distinguish between the joint stock company and co-operative society

66. Explain the rights and duties of partners
                                     OR
     Explain the different types of debentures.

67. Discuss the functions and duties of a company secretary.
                                   OR
     Explain the objectives, features, functions and powers of SEBI.